All About Pinpoint CAS-004 Testing Bible

NEW QUESTION 1
A company's Chief Information Officer wants to Implement IDS software onto the current system's architecture to provide an additional layer of security. The software must be able to monitor system activity, provide Information on attempted attacks, and provide analysis of malicious activities to determine the processes or users Involved. Which of the following would provide this information?

• A. HIPS
• B. UEBA
• C. HlDS
• D. NIDS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
A financial services company wants to migrate its email services from on-premises servers to a cloud-based email solution. The Chief information Security Officer (CISO) must brief board of directors on the potential security concerns related to this migration. The board is concerned about the following.
* Transactions being required by unauthorized individual
* Complete discretion regarding client names, account numbers, and investment information.
* Malicious attacker using email to distribute malware and ransom ware.
* Exfiltration of sensitivity company information.
The cloud-based email solution will provide an6-malware, reputation-based scanning, signature-based scanning, and sandboxing. Which of the following is the BEST option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration?

• A. Data loss prevention
• B. Endpoint detection response
• C. SSL VPN
• D. Application whitelisting

Answer: A

Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how- does-it-work.html

NEW QUESTION 3
A company wants to improve the security of its web applications that are running on in- house servers A risk assessment has been performed and the following capabilities are desired:
• Terminate SSL connections at a central location
• Manage both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls
• Advertise the web service API
• Implement DLP and anti-malware features
Which of the following technologies will be the BEST option?

• A. WAF
• B. XML gateway
• C. ESB gateway
• D. API gateway

Answer: D

Explanation:
An API gateway is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers that provide web services through application programming interfaces (APIs). An API gateway can provide various functions such as:
✑ Terminating SSL connections at a central location, reducing the overhead on the backend servers and simplifying certificate management
✑ Managing both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls, enforcing security policies and access control
✑ Advertising the web service API, providing documentation and discovery features for developers and consumers
✑ Implementing DLP and anti-malware features, preventing data leakage and malicious code injection A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can provide some protection for web services, but it does not provide all the functions of an API gateway. An XML gateway is a device or software that validates, transforms, and routes XML messages between clients and servers that provide web services. An XML gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is limited to XML-based web services and does not support other formats such as JSON. An enterprise service bus (ESB) gateway is a device or software that integrates and orchestrates multiple web services into a single service or application. An ESB gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is more focused on business logic and workflow rather than security and performance. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3: Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services

NEW QUESTION 4
A municipal department receives telemetry data from a third-party provider The server collecting telemetry sits in the municipal departments screened network and accepts connections from the third party over HTTPS. The daemon has a code execution vulnerability from a lack of input sanitization of out-of-bound messages, and therefore, the cybersecurity engineers would like to Implement nsk mitigations. Which of the following actions, if combined, would BEST prevent exploitation of this vulnerability? (Select TWO).

• A. Implementing a TLS inspection proxy on-path to enable monitoring and policy enforcement
• B. Creating a Linux namespace on the telemetry server and adding to it the servicing HTTP daemon
• C. Installing and configuring filesystem integrity monitoring service on the telemetry server
• D. Implementing an EDR and alert on Identified privilege escalation attempts to the SIEM
• E. Subscribing to a UTM service that enforces privacy controls between the internal network and the screened subnet
• F. Using the published data schema to monitor and block off nominal telemetry messages

Answer: AC

Explanation:
A TLS inspection proxy can be used to monitor and enforce policy on HTTPS connections, ensuring that only valid traffic is allowed through and malicious traffic is blocked. Additionally, a filesystem integrity monitoring service can be installed and
configured on the telemetry server to monitor for any changes to the filesystem, allowing any malicious changes to be detected and blocked.

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following is a risk associated with SDN?

• A. Expanded attack surface
• B. Increased hardware management costs
• C. Reduced visibility of scaling capabilities
• D. New firmware vulnerabilities

Answer: A

Explanation:

A risk associated with SDN is the expanded attack surface that it introduces. SDN is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing centralized and programmable management of network devices and traffic. However, this also exposes new attack vectors and vulnerabilities that can compromise the security and performance of the network. For example, an attacker can target the SDN controller, which is the core component that communicates with and controls the network devices. A successful attack on the SDN controller can result in denial of service, unauthorized access, data leakage, or network hijacking. An attacker can also exploit the communication channels between the SDN controller and the network devices, such as the OpenFlow protocol, to intercept, modify, or inject malicious messages or commands. Additionally, an attacker can leverage malicious or compromised applications that run on top of the SDN controller to manipulate or disrupt the network behavior. Verified References:
✑ https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-4/benefits-and-the-security-risk-of-software-defined-networking
✑ https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s40860-022-00171-8

NEW QUESTION 6
A security analyst is trying to identify the source of a recent data loss incident. The analyst has reviewed all the for the time surrounding the identified all the assets on the network at the time of the data loss. The analyst suspects the key to finding the source was obfuscated in an application. Which of the following tools should the analyst use NEXT?

• A. Software Decomplier
• B. Network enurrerator
• C. Log reduction and analysis tool
• D. Static code analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
An organization recently started processing, transmitting, and storing its customers’ credit card information. Within a week of doing so, the organization suffered a massive breach that resulted in the exposure of the customers’ information.
Which of the following provides the BEST guidance for protecting such information while it is at rest and in transit?

• A. NIST
• B. GDPR
• C. PCI DSS
• D. ISO

Answer: C

Explanation:
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information while it is at rest and in transit. PCI DSS is a standard that defines the security requirements and best practices for organizations that process, store, or transmit credit card information, such as merchants, service providers, or acquirers. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of credit card information and prevent fraud or identity theft. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an agency that develops standards, guidelines, and recommendations for various fields of science and technology, including cybersecurity. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but a regulation that defines the data protection and privacy rights and obligations for individuals and organizations in the European Union or the European Economic Area. ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of science and technology, including information security. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pci-dss https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default- source/resources/casp-content-guide

NEW QUESTION 8
A company’s product site recently had failed API calls, resulting in customers being unable to check out and purchase products. This type of failure could lead to the loss of customers and damage to the company’s reputation in the market.
Which of the following should the company implement to address the risk of system unavailability?

• A. User and entity behavior analytics
• B. Redundant reporting systems
• C. A self-healing system
• D. Application controls

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
A security analyst receives an alert from the SIEM regarding unusual activity on an authorized public SSH jump server. To further investigate, the analyst pulls the event logs directly from /var/log/auth.log: graphic.ssh_auth_log.
Which of the following actions would BEST address the potential risks by the activity in the logs?

• A. Alerting the misconfigured service account password
• B. Modifying the AllowUsers configuration directive
• C. Restricting external port 22 access
• D. Implementing host-key preferences

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.rapid7.com/blog/post/2017/10/04/how-to-secure-ssh-server-using- port-knocking-on-ubuntu-linux/
The AllowUsers configuration directive is an option for SSH servers that specifies which users are allowed to log in using SSH. The directive can include usernames, hostnames, IP addresses, or patterns. The directive can also be negated with a preceding exclamation mark (!) to deny access to specific users.
The logs show that there are multiple failed login attempts from different IP addresses using different usernames, such as root, admin, test, etc. This indicates a brute-force attack that is trying to guess the SSH credentials. To address this risk, the security analyst should modify the AllowUsers configuration directive to only allow specific users or hosts that are authorized to access the SSH jump server. This will prevent unauthorized users from attempting to log in using SSH and reduce the attack surface. References: https://man.openbsd.org/sshd_config#AllowUsers
https://www.ssh.com/academy/ssh/brute-force

NEW QUESTION 10
A disaster recovery team learned of several mistakes that were made during the last disaster recovery parallel test. Computational resources ran out at 70% of restoration of critical services.
Which of the following should be modified to prevent the issue from reoccurring?

• A. Recovery point objective
• B. Recovery time objective
• C. Mission-essential functions
• D. Recovery service level

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.nakivo.com/blog/disaster-recovery-in-cloud-computing/
The recovery service level is a metric that defines the minimum level of service or performance that a system or process must provide after a disaster or disruption. The recovery service level can include parameters such as availability, capacity, throughput, latency, etc. The recovery service level should be modified to prevent the issue of running out of computational resources at 70% of restoration of critical services. The recovery service level should be aligned with the recovery point objective (RPO) and the recovery time objective (RTO), which are the maximum acceptable amount of data loss and downtime respectively. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29836/recovery- service-level https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/recovery-point-objective https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/recovery-time-objective

NEW QUESTION 11
A developer needs to implement PKI in an autonomous vehicle's software in the most efficient and labor-effective way possible. Which of the following will the developer MOST likely implement?

• A. Certificate chain
• B. Root CA
• C. Certificate pinning
• D. CRL
• E. OCSP

Answer: B

Explanation:
The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed and embedded in the vehicle’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles or infrastructure. Verified References:
https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf
https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki
https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

NEW QUESTION 12
An organization is running its e-commerce site in the cloud. The capacity is sufficient to meet the organization's needs throughout most of the year, except during the holidays when the organization plans to introduce a new line of products and expects an increase in traffic. The organization is not sure how well its products will be received. To address this issue, the organization needs to ensure that:
* System capacity is optimized.
* Cost is reduced.
Which of the following should be implemented to address these requirements? (Select
TWO).

• A. Containerization
• B. Load balancer
• C. Microsegmentation
• D. Autoscaling
• E. CDN
• F. WAF

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage. References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 406-407 and 410]

NEW QUESTION 13
A threat hunting team receives a report about possible APT activity in the network. Which of the following threat management frameworks should the team implement?

• A. NIST SP 800-53
• B. MITRE ATT&CK
• C. The Cyber Kill Chain
• D. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help threat hunting teams to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. Verified References:
✑ https://attack.mitre.org/
✑ https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride- owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/
✑ https://www.ibm.com/topics/threat-management

NEW QUESTION 14
A security architect is tasked with scoping a penetration test that will start next month. The architect wants to define what security controls will be impacted. Which of the following would be the BEST document to consult?

• A. Rules of engagement
• B. Master service agreement
• C. Statement of work
• D. Target audience

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the scope of the penetration test and defines the objectives, tools, methodology, and targets of the test. It also outlines the security controls that will be impacted by the test and what the expected outcomes are. Additionally, the Statement of Work should include any legal requirements and other considerations that should be taken into account during the penetration test.
Reference: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide: Chapter 5:
Security Testing, Section 5.4: Defining Scope and Objective.

NEW QUESTION 15
A software development company is building a new mobile application for its social media platform. The company wants to gain its Users' rust by reducing the risk of on-path attacks between the mobile client and its servers and
by implementing stronger digital trust. To support users’ trust, the company has released the following internal guidelines:
* Mobile clients should verify the identity of all social media servers locally.
* Social media servers should improve TLS performance of their certificate status.
* Social media servers should inform the client to only use HTTPS.
Given the above requirements, which of the following should the company implement? (Select TWO).

• A. Quick UDP internet connection
• B. OCSP stapling
• C. Private CA
• D. DNSSEC
• E. CRL
• F. HSTS
• G. Distributed object model

Answer: BF

Explanation:
OCSP stapling and HSTS are the best options to meet the requirements of reducing the risk of on-path attacks and implementing stronger digital trust. OCSP stapling allows the
social media servers to improve TLS performance by sending a signed certificate status along with the certificate, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately. HSTS allows the social media servers to inform the client to only use HTTPS and prevent downgrade attacks.

NEW QUESTION 16
A security engineer is hardening a company’s multihomed SFTP server. When scanning a public-facing network interface, the engineer finds the following ports are open:
22
25
110
137
138
139
445
Internal Windows clients are used to transferring files to the server to stage them for customer download as part of the company’s distribution process.
Which of the following would be the BEST solution to harden the system?

• A. Close ports 110, 138, and 139. Bind ports 22, 25, and 137 to only the internal interface.
• B. Close ports 25 and 110. Bind ports 137, 138, 139, and 445 to only the internal interface.
• C. Close ports 22 and 139. Bind ports 137, 138, and 445 to only the internal interface.
• D. Close ports 22, 137, and 138. Bind ports 110 and 445 to only the internal interface.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17
In order to authenticate employees who, call in remotely, a company's help desk staff must be able to view partial Information about employees because the full information may be considered sensitive. Which of the following solutions should be implemented to authenticate employees?

• A. Data scrubbing
• B. Field masking
• C. Encryption in transit
• D. Metadata

Answer: B

Explanation:
Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.
Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:
✑ Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.
✑ Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.
✑ Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

NEW QUESTION 18
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