Testking comptia sy0 401 Questions are updated and all sy0 401 dump answers are verified by experts. Once you have completely prepared with our sy0 401 study guide pdf exam prep kits you will be ready for the real comptia security+ study guide sy0 401 exam without a problem. We have Latest CompTIA sy0 401 vce dumps study guide. PASSED sy0 401 practice test First attempt! Here What I Did.
♥♥ 2021 NEW RECOMMEND ♥♥
Free VCE & PDF File for CompTIA SY0-401 Real Exam (Full Version!)
★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions
Free Instant Download NEW SY0-401 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on:
http://www.surepassexam.com/SY0-401-exam-dumps.html
Q581. Which of the following should Matt, a security administrator, include when encrypting smartphones? (Select TWO).
A. Steganography images
B. Internal memory
C. Master boot records
D. Removable memory cards
E. Public keys
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
All useable data on the device should be encrypted. This data can be located on the hard drive, or removable drives, such as USB devices and memory cards, and on internal memory.
Q582. A company is installing a new security measure that would allow one person at a time to be authenticated to an area without human interaction. Which of the following does this describe?
A. Fencing
B. Mantrap
C. A guard
D. Video surveillance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mantraps make use of electronic locks and are designed to allow you to limit the amount of individual allowed access to an area at any one time.
Q583. Ann, a security administrator, wishes to replace their RADIUS authentication with a more secure protocol, which can utilize EAP. Which of the following would BEST fit her objective?
A. CHAP
B. SAML
C. Kerberos
D. Diameter
Answer: D
Explanation:
Diameter is an authentication, authorization, and accounting protocol that replaces the RADIUS protocol. Diameter Applications extend the base protocol by including new commands and/or attributes, such as those for use of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP).
Q584. A new intern was assigned to the system engineering department, which consists of the system architect and system software developer’s teams. These two teams have separate privileges. The intern requires privileges to view the system architectural drawings and comment on some software development projects. Which of the following methods should the system administrator implement?
A. Group based privileges
B. Generic account prohibition
C. User access review
D. Credential management
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can assign permissions to access resources either to a user or a group. The most efficient way is to assign permissions to a group (group based privileges). By assigning the intern’s user account to both groups, the intern will inherit the permissions assigned to those groups.
Q585. A company hires outside security experts to evaluate the security status of the corporate network. All of the company’s IT resources are outdated and prone to crashing. The company requests that all testing be performed in a way which minimizes the risk of system failures. Which of the following types of testing does the company want performed?
A. Penetration testing
B. WAF testing
C. Vulnerability scanning
D. White box testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning has minimal impact on network resource due to the passive nature of the scanning.
A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.
A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security.
Q586. By default, which of the following uses TCP port 22? (Select THREE).
A. FTPS
B. STELNET
C. TLS
D. SCP
E. SSL
F. HTTPS
G. SSH
H. SFTP
Answer: D,G,H
Explanation:
G: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.
D: SCP stands for Secure Copy. SCP is used to securely copy files over a network. SCP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.
H: SFTP stands for stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol and is used for transferring files using FTP over a secure network connection. SFTP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.
Q587. Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify a problem between two systems that are not communicating properly?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Baseline report
C. Risk assessment
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Protocol Analyzer is a hardware device or more commonly a software program used to capture
network data communications sent between devices on a network. Capturing and analyzing the
packets sent from two systems that are not communicating properly could help determine the
cause of the issue.
Well known software protocol analyzers include Message Analyzer (formerly Network Monitor)
from Microsoft and Wireshark (formerly Ethereal).
Q588. One of the servers on the network stops responding due to lack of available memory. Server administrators did not have a clear definition of what action should have taken place based on the available memory. Which of the following would have BEST kept this incident from occurring?
A. Set up a protocol analyzer
B. Set up a performance baseline
C. Review the systems monitor on a monthly basis
D. Review the performance monitor on a monthly basis
Answer: B
Explanation:
A performance baseline provides the input needed to design, implement, and support a secure network. The performance baseline would define the actions that should be performed on a server that is running low on memory.
Q589. Users are utilizing thumb drives to connect to USB ports on company workstations. A technician is concerned that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. Which of the following mitigation techniques would address this concern? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the USB root hub within the OS.
B. Install anti-virus software on the USB drives.
C. Disable USB within the workstations BIOS.
D. Apply the concept of least privilege to USB devices.
E. Run spyware detection against all workstations.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A: The USB root hub can be disabled from within the operating system.
C: USB can also be configured and disabled in the system BIOS.
Q590. An administrator notices an unusual spike in network traffic from many sources. The administrator suspects that:
A. it is being caused by the presence of a rogue access point.
B. it is the beginning of a DDoS attack.
C. the IDS has been compromised.
D. the internal DNS tables have been poisoned.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attack from several different computers
targeting a single computer.
One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external
communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so
slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload.
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or
resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Such an attack is often the
result of multiple compromised systems (for example a botnet) flooding the targeted system with
traffic. When a server is overloaded with connections, new connections can no longer be
accepted. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are
that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack
machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack
machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track and shut down. These attacker advantages
cause challenges for defense mechanisms. For example, merely purchasing more incoming
bandwidth than the current volume of the attack might not help, because the attacker might be
able to simply add more attack machines. This after all will end up completely crashing a website
for periods of time.
Malware can carry DDoS attack mechanisms; one of the better-known examples of this was
MyDoom. Its DoS mechanism was triggered on a specific date and time. This type of DDoS
involved hardcoding the target IP address prior to release of the malware and no further
interaction was necessary to launch the attack.
