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Q31. What is the name of the logical channel proposal that is transmitted from the called entity to the calling entity in H.323 Fast Connect? 

A. Forward Logical Channel 

B. Backward Logical Channel 

C. Reverse Logical Channel 

D. Originator Logical Channel 

E. Destination Logical Channel 

Answer:


Q32. Refer to the exhibit. 

How many calls, inbound and outbound combined, are supported on the IP phone? 

A. 1 

B. 2 

C. 8 

D. 12 

E. 50 

Answer:


Q33. In addition to SIP triggers, which two trigger types can invoke applications on Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.) 

A. HTTP 

B. IMAP 

C. VoiceView 

D. JTAPI 

E. Cisco Unified CM telephony 

F. voice mail 

Answer: AD 


Q34. When Single Inbox is configured, what will happen to an email message that was moved from any Outlook folder to the Voice Outbox folder? 

A. The email message will be delivered to Cisco Unity Connection. 

B. The email message will be kept in the Voice Outbox folder. 

C. The move will fail because the operation is not supported. 

D. The email message will be moved to the Deleted Items folder. 

E. The email message will be permanently deleted and will not be retrievable. 

Answer:


Q35. Which message-handling behavior describes how Cisco Unity Connection Single Inbox works for Outlook users who do not have ViewMail installed? 

A. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails without a WAV file attachment. 

B. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as voice messages. 

C. Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are treated as emails with a WAV file attachment. 

D. Cisco Unity Connection adds a Voice Outbox folder to the Outlook mailbox. 

E. Replies to Cisco Unity Connection voice messages are sent to Exchange as well as the Cisco Unity Connection mailbox for the recipient. 

Answer:


Q36. Refer to the exhibit. 

How many simultaneous outbound calls are possible with this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express configuration on these two phones? 

A. 6 

B. 7 

C. 8 

D. 9 

E. 11 

Answer:


Q37. Which statement describes the external database requirement for the Cisco IM and Presence permanent group chat feature? 

A. All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a physical external database. 

B. All nodes in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster can share a logical external database. 

C. Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own physical external database. 

D. Each node in a Cisco IM and Presence cluster must have its own logical external database. 

E. An external database is not mandatory. 

Answer:


Q38. Refer to the exhibit. 

In this high-availability Cisco IM and Presence deployment with three subclusters, the first user is assigned to server 1A; the second user is assigned to server 2A; and the third user is assigned to server 3A. Assume that Cisco IM and Presence is set to active-active mode. To which server will the fourth user be automatically assigned? 

A. 1A 

B. 3B 

C. 1B 

D. 2A 

E. 3A 

Answer:


Q39. Which statement about the iSAC on Cisco Unified Border Element is true? 

A. It is a narrow-band codec. 

B. It has a fixed frame of 30 milliseconds. 

C. It has an adaptive frame of up to 60 milliseconds. 

D. It is designed to deliver wideband sound quality in high-bit-rate applications only. 

E. It is not yet supported on the Cisco Unified Border Element (CUBE) 

F. It is not yet supported on Cisco Unified Border Element. 

Answer:


Q40. Which device is the initiator of a StationInit message in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SDI trace? 

A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager 

B. MGCP gateway 

C. Cisco Music on Hold server 

D. SCCP IP phone 

E. SIP Proxy Server 

Answer: