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Q381. A user has received an email from an external source which asks for details on the company’s new product line set for release in one month. The user has a detailed spec sheet but it is marked "Internal Proprietary Information". Which of the following should the user do NEXT?
A. Contact their manager and request guidance on how to best move forward
B. Contact the help desk and/or incident response team to determine next steps
C. Provide the requestor with the email information since it will be released soon anyway
D. Reply back to the requestor to gain their contact information and call them
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an incident that has to be responded to by the person who discovered it- in this case the user. An incident is any attempt to violate a security policy, a successful penetration, a compromise of a system, or any unauthorized access to information. It’s important that an incident response policy establish at least the following items: Outside agencies that should be contacted or notified in case of an incident Resources used to deal with an incident Procedures to gather and secure evidence List of information that should be collected about an incident Outside experts who can be used to address issues if needed Policies and guidelines regarding how to handle an incident
Since the spec sheet has been marked Internal Proprietary Information the user should refer the incident to the incident response team.
Q382. Which of the following is a requirement when implementing PKI if data loss is unacceptable?
A. Web of trust
B. Non-repudiation
C. Key escrow
D. Certificate revocation list
Answer: C
Explanation:
Key escrow is a database of stored keys that later can be retrieved. Key escrow addresses the possibility that a third party may need to access keys. Under the conditions of key escrow, the keys needed to encrypt/decrypt data are held in an escrow account (think of the term as it relates to home mortgages) and made available if that third party requests them. The third party in question is generally the government, but it could also be an employer if an employee’s private messages have been called into question.
Q383. Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?
A. Design reviews
B. Honeypot
C. Vulnerability scanner
D. Code reviews
Answer: B
Explanation:
A honeypot is a system whose purpose it is to be attacked. An administrator can watch and study
the attack to research current attack methodologies.
According to the Wepopedia.com, a Honeypot luring a hacker into a system has several main
purposes:
The administrator can watch the hacker exploit the vulnerabilities of the system, thereby learning
where the system has weaknesses that need to be redesigned.
The hacker can be caught and stopped while trying to obtain root access to the system.
By studying the activities of hackers, designers can better create more secure systems that are
potentially invulnerable to future hackers.
There are two main types of honeypots:
Production - A production honeypot is one used within an organization's environment to help
mitigate risk.
Research – A research honeypot add value to research in computer security by providing a
platform to study the threat.
Q384. Which of the following should be implemented to stop an attacker from mapping out addresses and/or devices on a network?
A. Single sign on
B. IPv6
C. Secure zone transfers
D. VoIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
C: A primary DNS server has the "master copy" of a zone, and secondary DNS servers keep copies of the zone for redundancy. When changes are made to zone data on the primary DNS server, these changes must be distributed to the secondary DNS servers for the zone. This is done through zone transfers. If you allow zone transfers to any server, all the resource records in the zone are viewable by any host that can contact your DNS server. Thus you will need to secure the zone transfers to stop an attacker from mapping out your addresses and devices on your network.
Q385. A hospital IT department wanted to secure its doctor’s tablets. The IT department wants operating system level security and the ability to secure the data from alteration. Which of the following methods would MOST likely work?
A. Cloud storage
B. Removal Media
C. TPM
D. Wiping
Answer: C
Explanation:
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.
Q386. The concept of rendering data passing between two points over an IP based network impervious to all but the most sophisticated advanced persistent threats is BEST categorized as which of the following?
A. Stream ciphers
B. Transport encryption
C. Key escrow
D. Block ciphers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Transport encryption is the process of encrypting data ready to be transmitted over an insecure network. A common example of this would be online banking or online purchases where sensitive information such as account numbers or credit card numbers is transmitted.
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a protocol that ensures privacy between communicating applications and their users on the Internet. When a server and client communicate, TLS ensures that no third party may eavesdrop or tamper with any message. TLS is the successor to the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
Q387. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned with moving an application to a SaaS cloud provider. Which of the following can be implemented to provide for data confidentiality assurance during and after the migration to the cloud?
A. HPM technology
B. Full disk encryption
C. DLP policy
D. TPM technology
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. The Software as a Service (SaaS) applications are remotely run over the Web and as such requires DLP monitoring.
Q388. A company is about to release a very large patch to its customers. An administrator is required to test patch installations several times prior to distributing them to customer PCs. Which of the following should the administrator use to test the patching process quickly and often?
A. Create an incremental backup of an unpatched PC
B. Create an image of a patched PC and replicate it to servers
C. Create a full disk image to restore after each installation
D. Create a virtualized sandbox and utilize snapshots
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q389. Which of the following does full disk encryption prevent?
A. Client side attacks
B. Clear text access
C. Database theft
D. Network-based attacks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Full-disk encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.
Q390. Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration?
A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised.
B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost.
C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking.
D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonly used to share files such as movies and music, but you must not allow users to bring in devices and create their own little networks. All networking must be done through administrators and not on a P2P basis. Data integrity can easily be compromised when using public P2P networking.
