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NEW QUESTION 1
A company hosts a large amount of data in blob storage for its customers. The company recently had a number of issues with this data being prematurely deleted before the scheduled backup processes could be completed. The management team has asked the security architect for a recommendation that allows blobs to be deleted occasionally, but only after a successful backup. Which of the following solutions will BEST meet this requirement?
- A. Mirror the blobs at a local data center.
- B. Enable fast recovery on the storage account.
- C. Implement soft delete for blobs.
- D. Make the blob immutable.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Soft delete allows blobs to be deleted, but the data remains accessible for a period of time before it is permanently deleted. This allows the company to delete blobs as needed, while still affording enough time for the backup process to complete. After the backup process is complete, the blobs can be permanently deleted.
NEW QUESTION 2
A security engineer needs 10 implement a CASB to secure employee user web traffic. A Key requirement is mat relevant event data must be collected from existing on-premises infrastructure components and consumed by me CASB to expand traffic visibility. The solution must be nighty resilient to network outages. Which of the following architectural components would BEST meet these requirements?
- A. Log collection
- B. Reverse proxy
- C. AWAF
- D. API mode
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 3
A customer reports being unable to connect to a website at www.test.com to consume services. The customer notices the web application has the following published cipher suite:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the customer’s inability to connect?
- A. Weak ciphers are being used.
- B. The public key should be using ECDSA.
- C. The default should be on port 80.
- D. The server name should be test.com.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/23383/ssh-key-type-rsa-dsa- ecdsa-are-there-easy-answers-for-which-to-choose-when
NEW QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
A product development team has submitted code snippets for review prior to release. INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the code snippets, and then select one vulnerability, and one fix for each code snippet.
Code Snippet 1
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 1:
✑ SQL injection
✑ Cross-site request forgery
✑ Server-side request forgery
✑ Indirect object reference
✑ Cross-site scripting
Fix 1:
✑ Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
✑ Perform output encoding of queryResponse,
✑ Ensure usex:ia belongs to logged-in user.
✑ Inspect URLS and disallow arbitrary requests.
✑ Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Vulnerability 2
1) Denial of service
2) Command injection
3) SQL injection
4) Authorization bypass
5) Credentials passed via GET
Fix 2
A) Implement prepared statements and bind variables.
B) Remove the serve_forever instruction.
C) Prevent the "authenticated" value from being overridden by a GET parameter.
D) HTTP POST should be used for sensitive parameters.
E) Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Solution:
Code Snippet 1
Vulnerability 1: SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that interacts with a database. An attacker can inject malicious SQL commands into the input fields, such as username or password, and execute them on the database server. This can result in data theft, data corruption, or unauthorized access.
Fix 1: Perform input sanitization of the userid field.
Input sanitization is a technique that prevents SQL injection by validating and filtering the user input values before passing them to the database. The input sanitization should remove any special characters, such as quotes, semicolons, or dashes, that can alter the intended SQL query. Alternatively, the input sanitization can use a whitelist of allowed values and reject any other values.
Code Snippet 2
Vulnerability 2: Cross-site request forgery
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in the code that handles web requests. An attacker can trick a user into sending a malicious web request to a server that performs an action on behalf of the user, such as changing their password, transferring funds, or deleting data. This can result in unauthorized actions, data loss, or account compromise.
Fix 2: Implement anti-forgery tokens.
Anti-forgery tokens are techniques that prevent CSRF by adding a unique and secret value to each web request that is generated by the server and verified by the server before performing the action. The anti-forgery token should be different for each user and each session, and should not be predictable or reusable by an attacker. This way, only legitimate web requests from the user’s browser can be accepted by the server.
Does this meet the goal?
- A. Yes
- B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5
A vulnerability assessment endpoint generated a report of the latest findings. A security analyst needs to review the report and create a priority list of items that must be addressed. Which of the following should the analyst use to create the list quickly?
- A. Business impact rating
- B. CVE dates
- C. CVSS scores
- D. OVAL
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following objectives BEST supports leveraging tabletop exercises in business continuity planning?
- A. Determine the optimal placement of hot/warm sites within the enterprise architecture.
- B. Create new processes for identified gaps in continuity planning.
- C. Establish new staff roles and responsibilities for continuity of operations.
- D. Assess the effectiveness of documented processes against a realistic scenario.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 7
A security compliance requirement states that specific environments that handle sensitive data must be protected by need-to-know restrictions and can only connect to authorized endpoints. The requirement also states that a DLP solution within the environment must be used to control the data from leaving the environment.
Which of the following should be implemented for privileged users so they can support the environment from their workstations while remaining compliant?
- A. NAC to control authorized endpoints
- B. FIM on the servers storing the data
- C. A jump box in the screened subnet
- D. A general VPN solution to the primary network
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network Access Control (NAC) is used to bolster the network security by
restricting the availability of network resources to managed endpoints that don't satisfy the compliance requirements of the Organization.
NEW QUESTION 8
The Chief Information Security Officer of a startup company has asked a security engineer to implement a software security program in an environment that previously had little oversight.
Which of the following testing methods would be BEST for the engineer to utilize in this situation?
- A. Software composition analysis
- B. Code obfuscation
- C. Static analysis
- D. Dynamic analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 9
A security operations center analyst is investigating anomalous activity between a database server and an unknown external IP address and gathered the following data:
• dbadmin last logged in at 7:30 a.m. and logged out at 8:05 a.m.
• A persistent TCP/6667 connection to the external address was established at 7:55 a.m. The connection is still active.
• Other than bytes transferred to keep the connection alive, only a few kilobytes of data transfer every hour since the start of the connection.
• A sample outbound request payload from PCAP showed the ASCII content: "JOIN
#community".
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause?
- A. A SQL injection was used to exfiltrate data from the database server.
- B. The system has been hijacked for cryptocurrency mining.
- C. A botnet Trojan is installed on the database server.
- D. The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat. The clues in the given information point to the dbadmin user having established an Internet Relay Chat (IRC) connection to an external address at 7:55 a.m. This connection is still active, and only a few kilobytes of data have been transferred since the start of the connection. The sample outbound request payload of "JOIN #community" also suggests that the user is trying to join an IRC chatroom. This suggests that the dbadmin user is using the IRC connection to consult the community for help with a problem. Therefore, the root cause of the anomalous activity is likely the dbadmin user consulting the community for help via IRC. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 10, Investigating Intrusions and Suspicious Activity.
NEW QUESTION 10
A security analyst has been tasked with providing key information in the risk register. Which of the following outputs or results would be used to BEST provide the information needed to determine the security posture for a risk decision? (Select TWO).
- A. Password cracker
- B. SCAP scanner
- C. Network traffic analyzer
- D. Vulnerability scanner
- E. Port scanner
- F. Protocol analyzer
Answer: BD
Explanation:
The tools that can be used to provide key information in the risk register are SCAP scanner and vulnerability scanner. SCAP stands for Security Content Automation Protocol, which is a set of standards and specifications for automating the management of security configuration, vulnerability assessment, and compliance evaluation. SCAP scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for security issues based on SCAP content. Vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for known vulnerabilities and weaknesses. These tools can help the security analyst identify and prioritize the risks associated with the systems and networks, as well as provide possible remediation actions. Verified References:
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Security-Content-Automation-Protocol https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/vulnerability-management
https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/vulnerability-scanner
NEW QUESTION 11
A security architect Is analyzing an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business. Which of the following techniques should have been Implemented to prevent these types of risks?
- A. Code reviews
- B. Supply chain visibility
- C. Software audits
- D. Source code escrows
Answer: D
Explanation:
A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.
A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:
✑ Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify
the application according to their needs.
✑ Protect the vendor’s intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.
✑ Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.
NEW QUESTION 12
A vulnerability analyst identified a zero-day vulnerability in a company’s internally developed software. Since the current vulnerability management system does not have any checks for this vulnerability, an engineer has been asked to create one.
Which of the following would be BEST suited to meet these requirements?
- A. ARF
- B. ISACs
- C. Node.js
- D. OVAL
Answer: D
Explanation:
OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is a standard that would be best suited for creating checks for a zero-day vulnerability in an organization’s internally developed software. OVAL is a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. An engineer can use OVAL to create definitions or tests for specific vulnerabilities or states in the software, and then use OVAL- compatible tools to scan or evaluate the software against those definitions or tests. ARF (Asset Reporting Format) is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a standard for expressing information about assets and their characteristics in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. ISACs (Information Sharing and Analysis Centers) are not standards for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but organizations that collect, analyze, and disseminate information about threats, vulnerabilities, incidents, or best practices among different sectors or communities. Node.js is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a runtime environment that allows executing JavaScript code outside of a web browser, enabling the development of scalable web applications or services. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-oval https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default- source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION 13
A user experiences an HTTPS connection error when trying to access an Internet banking website from a corporate laptop. The user then opens a browser on a mobile phone and is able to access the same Internet banking website without issue. Which of the following security configurations is MOST likely the cause of the error?
- A. HSTS
- B. TLS 1.2
- C. Certificate pinning
- D. Client authentication
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 14
A cybersecurity analyst created the following tables to help determine the maximum budget amount the business can justify spending on an improved email filtering system:
Which of the following meets the budget needs of the business?
- A. Filter ABC
- B. Filter XYZ
- C. Filter GHI
- D. Filter TUV
Answer: B
Explanation:
Filter XYZ is the best option that meets the budget needs of the business. Filter XYZ has an ALE of $1 million per year, which is lower than any other filter option. ALE stands for annualized loss expectancy, which is a measure of how much money a business can expect to lose due to a risk over a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO) of an event by the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an event. ARO is how often an event is expected to occur in a year. SLE is how much money an event will cost each time it occurs. Therefore, ALE = ARO x SLE. Filter XYZ has an ARO of 0.1 and an SLE of $10 million, so ALE = 0.1 x $10 million = $1 million. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24771/annualized-loss-expectancy-ale
NEW QUESTION 15
A company wants to protect its intellectual property from theft. The company has already applied ACLs and DACs.
Which of the following should the company use to prevent data theft?
- A. Watermarking
- B. DRM
- C. NDA
- D. Access logging
Answer: B
Explanation:
DRM (digital rights management) is a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by restricting the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices. DRM can use encryption, authentication, licensing, watermarking, or other methods to enforce the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent unauthorized copying, sharing, or piracy of digital content, such as software, music, movies, or books. Watermarking is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can embed identifying information or marks in digital content or media, such as images, audio, or video. Watermarking can help prove ownership or origin of digital content, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a legal contract that binds parties to keep certain information confidential and not disclose it to unauthorized parties. NDA can help protect sensitive or proprietary information from exposure or misuse, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. Access logging is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can record the activities or events related to accessing data or resources. Access logging can help monitor or audit access to data or resources, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-drm https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following indicates when a company might not be viable after a disaster?
- A. Maximum tolerable downtime
- B. Recovery time objective
- C. Mean time to recovery
- D. Annual loss expectancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
The indicator that shows when a company might not be viable after a disaster is the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD). MTD is the maximum amount of time that a business process or function can be disrupted without causing unacceptable consequences for the organization. MTD is a key metric for business continuity planning and disaster recovery, as it helps determine the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO) for each process or function. If the actual downtime exceeds the MTD, the organization may face severe losses, reputational damage, regulatory penalties, or even bankruptcy. Verified References: https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/maximum-tolerable-downtime https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-time-objective https://www.techtarget.com/searchdisasterrecovery/definition/recovery-point-objective
NEW QUESTION 17
A security consultant has been asked to identify a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. The solution should have a single SSID and no guest access. The customer
facility is located in a crowded area of town, so there is a high likelihood that several people will come into range every day. The customer has asked that the solution require low administrative overhead
and be resistant to offline password attacks. Which of the following should the security consultant recommend?
- A. WPA2-Preshared Key
- B. WPA3-Enterprise
- C. WPA3-Personal
- D. WPA2-Enterprise
Answer: C
Explanation:
WPA3-Personal is a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. It uses a new security protocol called Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange with a more secure way to do initial key exchange. SAE also provides forward secrecy, which means that even if the password is compromised, the attacker cannot decrypt past or future data. WPA3-Personal also uses AES-128 in CCM mode as the minimum encryption algorithm, which is resistant to offline password attacks. WPA3-Personal requires low administrative overhead and supports a single SSID with no guest access. Verified References:
✑ https://www.diffen.com/difference/WPA2_vs_WPA3
✑ https://www.thewindowsclub.com/wpa3-personal-enterprise-wi-fi-encryption
✑ https://www.teldat.com/blog/wpa3-wi-fi-network-security-wpa3-personal-wpa3- enterprise/
NEW QUESTION 18
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