Tips to Pass HIT-001 Exam (271 to 285)

Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 Apr HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:

Q271. Which of the following stores document copies and backup media away from the computer center? 

A. Storage area network 

B. Network attached storage 

C. On-site storage 

D. Off-site storage 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Off-site storage refers to a location away from the computer center where document copies and backup media are kept. This storage method is more secure but less convenient and more costly. Answer: C is incorrect. On-site storage refers to the same location where the work place is. It is considered more convenient but less secure in case of disaster. Answer: A is incorrect. A storage area network (SAN) is an architecture to attach remote computer storage devices (such as disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes) to servers in such a way that the devices appear as locally attached to the operating system. Answer: B is incorrect. Network attached storage (NAS), in contrast to SAN, uses file-based protocols such as NFS or SMB/CIFS where it is clear that the storage is remote, and computers request a portion of an abstract file rather than a disk block. 


Q272. Your primary duty is to transmit protected health information electronically from your facility to a central database. You are performing this duty based on the regulation set forth by which of the following governing bodies? 

A. The Joint Commission 

B. Department of Health and Human Services 

C. National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics 

D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics is the governing body that standardized the transmission of protected health information. Answer: B is incorrect. Department of Health and Human Services is incorrect as this agency is protecting the health of all Americans and providing essential human services, especially for those who are least able to help themselves. 


Q273. An open heart surgical procedure is required to save your life. You choose not to have the surgery. This is your right based on which of the following pieces of legislation? 

A. HIPAA 

B. COBRA 

C. EMTALA 

D. Patient Self Determination Act 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The Patient Self Determination Act, enacted in 1990, is the piece of of legislation preserves the patient's wishes, rights, healthcare options and advanced directives even if the decision results in the death of the patient. Answer: B is incorrect. COBRA, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, was devised in 1985 gives workers and their families who lose their health benefits the right to choose to continue group health benefits provided by their group health plan for limited periods of time under certain circumstances such as voluntary or involuntary job loss, reduction in the hours worked, transition between jobs, death, divorce, and other life events. Answer: C is incorrect. EMTALA is incorrect as this legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay. Answer: A is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this legislation is designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information. 


Q274. Which of the following statements about FTP is true? 

A. It connects file servers on the World Wide Web. 

B. It manages network devices. 

C. It allows password free file transfers. 

D. It transfers files between computers. 

E. It holds files transmitted through POP3 mail. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. It provides a no-overhead method of transferring files between computers. 


Q275. Which of the following types of displays occupy less space on a desk? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. 

A. CRT 

B. Mercury 

C. LED 

D. LCD 

Answer: CD 

Explanation: LED and LCD displays occupy less space on a desk. The Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) is an electronically modulated optical amplification shaped into a thin, flat display device made up of any number of color or monochrome pixels arrayed in front of a light source (backlight) or reflector. It is often utilized in battery-powered electronic devices because it uses very small amounts of electric power. Answer: A, B are incorrect. CRT and Mercury displays take lots of space as compared to LCD and LED displays. 


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Q276. While working at a private physician practice, a new patient is coming for an initial visit. You are asked to obtain medical records from every healthcare facility this patient has ever sought care. Which of the following types of medical records have you been asked to compile? 

A. Electronic Health Record 

B. Electronic Medical Record 

C. Demographic Health Information 

D. Archived Health Information 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Electronic Health Record is a compilation of core data from multiple sources and may be comprised of several different e-records submitted by several different providers. 


Q277. Which of the following types of health insurance offers healthcare services for a prepaid, fixed amount of reimbursement? 

A. Point of Service 

B. Indemnity Plan 

C. HMO 

D. PPO 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) offers healthcare services for a prepaid fixed amount of reimbursement. In an HMO, providers and subscribers voluntarily enroll and the HMO assumes responsibility and financial risks. Answer: B is incorrect. Indemnity plan is incorrect as this type of plan allows you to visit any doctor, any hospital and direct your own care. Answer: D is incorrect. PPO or preferred provider organization is a network of physicians or healthcare organizations that provide healthcare at a discounted rate in return for higher patient volume. Answer: A is incorrect. Point of Service (POS) is an agreement where a patient is permitted to choose a provider each time healthcare service is required. 


Q278. Which of the following refers to a facility that offers a wide range of medical, surgical, pediatric and obstetric services that require a hospital stay of less than 30 days? 

A. Subacute Care Facility 

B. Acute Care Facility 

C. Nonacute Care Facililty 

D. Ambulatory Care Facility 

Answer: B 

Explanation: An acute care facility is to a facility that offers a wide range of medical, surgical, pediatric and obstetric services that require a hospital stay of less than 30 days. Answer: D is incorrect. Ambulatory care facility is incorrect as this facility offers a variety of outpatient services which is directly overseen by a hospital, but patients to do not require a stay in the hospital. 


Q279. Which of the following types of connectors is used by 1000BASE-TX gigabit ethernet? 

A. LC 

B. RJ-45 

C. RJ-59 

D. BNC 

Answer: B 

Explanation: 1000BASE-TX is an IEEE specification for Ethernet. This is commonly known as Gigabit Ethernet. It supports the maximum speed of 1000Mbps and the maximum cable length of 100 meters. 1000BASE-TX uses Category 5 UTP cables and RJ-45 connectors. RJ-45 is a type of connector similar to an RJ-11 telephone connector, but it is larger in size because it has eight conductors. 


Answer: D is incorrect. BNC stands for British Naval Connector. It is a connector used to connect 10Base2 cable network to Network Interface Card (NIC). 


Answer: A is incorrect. The LC connector was developed to meet the need for small and easier-to-use fiber optic connectors. The LC connector reduces space required on panels by 50%. 


Answer: C is incorrect. RJ-59 connector is used in cable TV's coaxial cable. 


Q280. Which of the following is true about the TELNET utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. 

A. It uses TCP port 23. 

B. It uses the RDP protocol to connect to a remote computer. 

C. It allows users to communicate with a remote computer. 

D. It transmits data in clear text. 

Answer: ACD 

Explanation: Telnet is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the Telnet server service. Telnet allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The Telnet utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer: B is incorrect. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer. 


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Q281. John works as a Sales Manager for BlueWells Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. John often travels away from the office. He wants to connect his Laptop to the office's local network. Which of the following mechanisms will he use to connect to the office's local network? 

A. Virtual Private Network (VPN) 

B. Personal Area Network (PAN) 

C. Intranet 

D. Extranet 

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

A virtual private network (VPN) is a form of wide area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network. A virtual private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost. A VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data, but also the originating and receiving network addresses. Answer: C is incorrect. An intranet is a private network that is contained within an enterprise. Intranet is used to share company information and computing resources among employees. It is also used to facilitate working in groups and for teleconferencing. An intranet uses TCP/IP, HTTP, and other Internet protocols. Answer: D is incorrect. Extranet is an area of a Web site, which is available only to selected customers, suppliers, and mobile workers. It allows users limited access to a company's intranet. Extranet can also be considered as an extension of a corporate intranet using the World Wide Web technology to facilitate communication with a corporation's suppliers and customers. Answer: B is incorrect. A personal area network (PAN) is a computer network used for communication among computer devices (including telephones and personal digital assistants) close to one's person. The reach of a PAN is typically a few meters. A PAN can be used for communication among the personal devices themselves (intrapersonal communication), or for connecting to a higher level network and the Internet. 


Q282. Which of the following devices enables you to input letters, numbers, and other characters into the computer for storage or manipulation? 

A. Mouse 

B. Keyboard 

C. Monitor 

D. Printer 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A keyboard enables you to input letters, numbers, and other characters into the computer for storage or manipulation. 


Q283. Which of the following is the default port for Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)? 

A. 21 

B. 80 

C. 23 

D. 25 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port. Answer: D is incorrect. Port 25 is the default port for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Answer: C is incorrect. Port 23 is the default port for the TELNET utility. Answer: A is incorrect. Port 21 is the default port for File Transfer Protocol (FTP). 


Q284. Mark has a computer with a CD-ROM drive. He is unable to open the CD-ROM drive tray by pushing the Eject button on the front panel of the drive. What else can he do to open the tray? 

A. Insert a pin into the eject hole on the drive. 

B. Open the CD-ROM cover. 

C. Open the tray by holding it through pliers. 

D. Push the Eject button for two minutes. 

Answer: A 

Explanation: If Mark is unable to open the CD-ROM drive tray by pushing the Eject button on the front panel, he can open it by inserting a pin into the eject hole on the CD-ROM drive. Answer: B, C are incorrect. These are not the right ways to open the tray of a CD-ROM drive. Answer: D is incorrect. Pushing the Eject button for such a long time will not help accomplish the task. 


Q285. Which of the following titles of HIPAA is known as the Administrative Simplification (AS) provisions, and requires the establishment of national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers? 

A. Title II 

B. Title IV 

C. Title III 

D. Title I 

Answer: A 

Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 was enacted by the U.S. Congress in 1996. According to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Website, Title I of HIPAA protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs. Title II of HIPAA, known as the Administrative Simplification (AS) provisions, requires the establishment of national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers. This is intended to help people keep their information private, though in practice it is normal for providers and health insurance plans to require the waiver of HIPAA rights as a condition of service. The Administration Simplification provisions also address the security and privacy of health data. The standards are meant to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the nation's health care system by encouraging the widespread use of electronic data interchange in the U.S. health care system. Answer: B, C are incorrect. These are not the valid titles of HIPAA.