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Q181. Pete, the system administrator, is reviewing his disaster recovery plans. He wishes to limit the downtime in the event of a disaster, but does not have the budget approval to implement or maintain an offsite location that ensures 99.99% availability. Which of the following would be Pete’s BEST option?
A. Use hardware already at an offsite location and configure it to be quickly utilized.
B. Move the servers and data to another part of the company’s main campus from the server room.
C. Retain data back-ups on the main campus and establish redundant servers in a virtual environment.
D. Move the data back-ups to the offsite location, but retain the hardware on the main campus for redundancy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A warm site provides some of the capabilities of a hot site, but it requires the customer to do more work to become operational. Warm sites provide computer systems and compatible media capabilities. If a warm site is used, administrators and other staff will need to install and configure systems to resume operations. For most organizations, a warm site could be a remote office, a leased facility, or another organization with which yours has a reciprocal agreement. Warm sites may be for your exclusive use, but they don’t have to be. A warm site requires more advanced planning, testing, and access to media for system recovery. Warm sites represent a compromise between a hot site, which is very expensive, and a cold site, which isn’t preconfigured.
Q182. Which of the following is BEST utilized to actively test security controls on a particular system?
A. Port scanning
B. Penetration test
C. Vulnerability scanning
D. Grey/Gray box
Answer: B
Explanation:
Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in.
Pen test strategies include:
Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out.
External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access.
Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause.
Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive.
Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures.
Q183. Which of the following protocols is MOST likely to be leveraged by users who need additional information about another user?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. TACACS+
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q184. A security administrator discovered that all communication over the company’s encrypted wireless network is being captured by savvy employees with a wireless sniffing tool and is then being decrypted in an attempt to steal other employee’s credentials. Which of the following technology is MOST likely in use on the company’s wireless?
A. WPA with TKIP
B. VPN over open wireless
C. WEP128-PSK
D. WPA2-Enterprise
Answer: C
Explanation:
WEP's major weakness is its use of static encryption keys. When you set up a router with a WEP encryption key, that one key is used by every device on your network to encrypt every packet that's transmitted. But the fact that packets are encrypted doesn't prevent them from being intercepted, and due to some esoteric technical flaws it's entirely possible for an eavesdropper to intercept enough WEP-encrypted packets to eventually deduce what the key is. This problem used to be something you could mitigate by periodically changing the WEP key (which is why routers generally allow you to store up to four keys). But few bother to do this because changing WEP keys is inconvenient and time-consuming because it has to be done not just on the router, but on every device that connects to it. As a result, most people just set up a single key and then continue using it ad infinitum. Even worse, for those that do change the WEP key, new research and developments reinforce how even changing WEP keys frequently is no longer sufficient to protect a WLAN. The process of 'cracking' a WEP key used to require that a malicious hacker intercept millions of packets plus spend a fair amount of time and computing power. Researchers in the computer science department of a German university recently demonstrated the capability to compromise a WEP-protected network very quickly. After spending less than a minute intercepting data (fewer than 100,000 packets in all) they were able to compromise a WEP key in just three seconds.
Q185. The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.
Rebirth SY0-401 practice exam:
Q186. TION NO: 134
Which of the following ports is used for SSH, by default?
A. 23
B. 32
C. 12
D. 22
Answer: D
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.
Q187. A new client application developer wants to ensure that the encrypted passwords that are stored in their database are secure from cracking attempts. To implement this, the developer implements a function on the client application that hashes passwords thousands of times prior to being sent to the database. Which of the following did the developer MOST likely implement?
A. RIPEMD
B. PBKDF2
C. HMAC
D. ECDHE
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q188. It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q189. The security officer is preparing a read-only USB stick with a document of important personal phone numbers, vendor contacts, an MD5 program, and other tools to provide to employees. At which of the following points in an incident should the officer instruct employees to use this information?
A. Business Impact Analysis
B. First Responder
C. Damage and Loss Control
D. Contingency Planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. In this scenario the security officer is carrying out an incident response measure that will address and be of benefit to those in the vanguard, i.e. the employees and they are the first responders.
Q190. Which of the following would be used as a secure substitute for Telnet?
A. SSH
B. SFTP
C. SSL
D. HTTPS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally designed for Unix systems. It uses encryption to establish a secure connection between two systems. SSH also provides alternative, security-equivalent programs for such Unix standards as Telnet, FTP, and many other communications-oriented applications. SSH is available for use on Windows systems as well. This makes it the preferred method of security for Telnet and other cleartext oriented programs in the Unix environment.
