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Q31. An administrator wishes to hide the network addresses of an internal network when connecting to the Internet. The MOST effective way to mask the network address of the users would be by passing the traffic through a:
A. stateful firewall
B. packet-filtering firewall
C. NIPS
D. NAT
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAT serves as a basic firewall by only allowing incoming traffic that is in response to an internal system’s request.
Q32. Which of the following is true about the recovery agent?
A. It can decrypt messages of users who lost their private key.
B. It can recover both the private and public key of federated users.
C. It can recover and provide users with their lost or private key.
D. It can recover and provide users with their lost public key.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: A key recovery agent is an entity that has the ability to recover a private key, key components, or plaintext messages as needed. Using the recovered key the recovery agent can decrypt encrypted data.
Q33. The recovery agent is used to recover the:
A. Root certificate
B. Key in escrow
C. Public key
D. Private key
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation:
A key recovery agent is an entity that has the ability to recover a private key, key components, or
plaintext messages as needed. Using the recovered key the recovery agent can decrypt encrypted
data.
Q34. Joe, a user, reports to the system administrator that he is receiving an error stating his certificate has been revoked. Which of the following is the name of the database repository for these certificates?
A. CSR
B. OCSP
C. CA
D. CRL
Answer: D
Explanation:
A certificate revocation list (CRL) is created and distributed to all CAs to revoke a certificate or key.
Q35. Which of the following is BEST utilized to identify common misconfigurations throughout the enterprise?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Port scanning
C. Penetration testing
D. Black box
Answer: A
Explanation:
A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.
A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security.
Q36. Which of the following concepts defines the requirement for data availability?
A. Authentication to RADIUS
B. Non-repudiation of email messages
C. Disaster recovery planning
D. Encryption of email messages
Answer: C
Explanation:
A disaster-recovery plan, or scheme, helps an organization respond effectively when a disaster occurs. Disasters may include system failure, network failure, infrastructure failure, and natural disaster. The primary emphasis of such a plan is reestablishing services and minimizing losses.
Q37. Which of the following is a concern when encrypting wireless data with WEP?
A. WEP displays the plain text entire key when wireless packet captures are reassembled
B. WEP implements weak initialization vectors for key transmission
C. WEP uses a very weak encryption algorithm
D. WEP allows for only four pre-shared keys to be configured
Answer: B
Explanation:
The initialization vector (IV) that WEP uses for encryption is 24-bit, which is quite weak and means that IVs are reused with the same key. By examining the repeating result, it was easy for attackers to crack the WEP secret key. This is known as an IV attack.
Q38. The marketing department wants to distribute pens with embedded USB drives to clients. In the past this client has been victimized by social engineering attacks which led to a loss of sensitive data. The security administrator advises the marketing department not to distribute the USB pens due to which of the following?
A. The risks associated with the large capacity of USB drives and their concealable nature
B. The security costs associated with securing the USB drives over time
C. The cost associated with distributing a large volume of the USB pens
D. The security risks associated with combining USB drives and cell phones on a network
Answer: A
Explanation:
USB drive and other USB devices represent a security risk as they can be used to either bring malicious code into a secure system or to copy and remove sensitive data out of the system.
Q39. A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?
A. Peer to Peer
B. Mobile devices
C. Social networking
D. Personally owned devices
Answer: C
Explanation:
There many companies that allow full use of social media in the workplace, believing that the marketing opportunities it holds outweigh any loss in productivity. What they are unknowingly minimizing are the threats that exist. Rather than being all new threats, the social networking/media threats tend to fall in the categories of the same old tricks used elsewhere but in a new format. A tweet can be sent with a shortened URL so that it does not exceed the 140-character limit set by Twitter; unfortunately, the user has no idea what the shortened URL leads to. This makes training your employees regarding the risks social networking entails essential.
Q40. Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A false positive is an error in some evaluation process in which a condition tested for is mistakenly found to have been detected. In spam filters, for example, a false positive is a legitimate message mistakenly marked as UBE --unsolicited bulk email, as junk email is more formally known. Messages that are determined to be spam -- whether correctly or incorrectly -- may be rejected by a server or client-side spam filter and returned to the sender as bounce e-mail. One problem with many spam filtering tools is that if they are configured stringently enough to be effective, there is a fairly high chance of getting false positives. The risk of accidentally blocking an important message has been enough to deter many companies from implementing any anti-spam measures at all. False positives are also common in security systems. A host intrusion prevention system (HIPS), for example, looks for anomalies, such as deviations in bandwidth, protocols and ports. When activity varies outside of an acceptable range – for example, a remote application attempting to open a normally closed port -- an intrusion may be in progress. However, an anomaly, such as a sudden spike in bandwidth use, does not guarantee an actual attack, so this approach amounts to an educated guess and the chance for false positives can be high. False positives contrast with false negatives, which are results indicating mistakenly that some condition tested for is absent.
