Act now and download your CompTIA CAS-004 test today! Do not waste time for the worthless CompTIA CAS-004 tutorials. Download Far out CompTIA CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam exam with real questions and answers and begin to learn CompTIA CAS-004 with a classic professional.
CompTIA CAS-004 Free Dumps Questions Online, Read and Test Now.
NEW QUESTION 1
A company is looking to fortify its cybersecurity defenses and is focusing on its network infrastructure. The solution cannot affect the availability of the company’s services to ensure false positives do not drop legitimate traffic.
Which of the following would satisfy the requirement?
- A. NIDS
- B. NIPS
- C. WAF
- D. Reverse proxy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://subscription.packtpub.com/book/networking-and- servers/9781782174905/5/ch05lvl1sec38/differentiating-between-nids-and-nips
https://owasp.org/www-community/controls/Intrusion_Detection
A NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) is a security solution that monitors network traffic for signs of malicious activity, such as attacks, intrusions, or policy violations. A NIDS does not affect the availability of the company’s services because it operates in passive mode, which means it does not block or modify traffic. Instead, it alerts the network administrator or other security tools when it detects an anomaly or threat. References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-network-intrusion-detection- system.html https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/network-intrusion- detection-system-nids/
NEW QUESTION 2
A company launched a new service and created a landing page within its website network for users to access the service. Per company policy, all websites must utilize encryption for any authentication pages. A junior network administrator proceeded to use an outdated procedure to order new certificates. Afterward, customers are reporting the following error when accessing a new web page: NET:ERR_CERT_COMMON_NAME_INVALID. Which of the following BEST describes what the administrator should do NEXT?
- A. Request a new certificate with the correct subject alternative name that includes the new websites.
- B. Request a new certificate with the correct organizational unit for the company's website.
- C. Request a new certificate with a stronger encryption strength and the latest cipher suite.
- D. Request a new certificate with the same information but including the old certificate on the CRL.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following technologies allows CSPs to add encryption across multiple data storages?
- A. Symmetric encryption
- B. Homomorphic encryption
- C. Data dispersion
- D. Bit splitting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.hhs.gov/sites/default/files/nist800111.pdf
NEW QUESTION 4
An administrator at a software development company would like to protect the integrity of the company's applications with digital signatures. The developers report that the signing process keeps failing on all applications. The same key pair used for signing, however, is working properly on the website, is valid, and is issued by a trusted CA. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the signature failing?
- A. The NTP server is set incorrectly for the developers
- B. The CA has included the certificate in its CR
- C. The certificate is set for the wrong key usage.
- D. Each application is missing a SAN or wildcard entry on the certificate
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the signature failing is that the certificate is set for the wrong key usage. Key usage is an extension of a certificate that defines the purpose and functionality of the public key contained in the certificate. Key usage can include digital signature, key encipherment, data encipherment, certificate signing, and others. If the certificate is set for a different key usage than digital signature, it will not be able to sign the applications properly. The administrator should check the key usage extension of the certificate and make sure it matches the intended purpose. Verified References:
https://www.wintips.org/how-to-fix-windows-cannot-verify-the-digital-signature-for-this-file-error-in-win
https://softwaretested.com/mac/how-to-fix-a-digital-signature-error-on-windows-10/
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/digital-signatures-and-certificates-8186cd15-e7ac-4a16-8597-2
NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following processes involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit?
- A. E-discovery
- B. Review analysis
- C. Information governance
- D. Chain of custody
Answer: A
Explanation:
E-discovery is the process of searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit. E-discovery involves identifying, preserving, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant for a legal case or investigation. E-discovery can be used to find evidence in email, business communications, social media, online documents, databases, and other digital sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following is required for an organization to meet the ISO 27018 standard?
- A. All Pll must be encrypted.
- B. All network traffic must be inspected.
- C. GDPR equivalent standards must be met
- D. COBIT equivalent standards must be met
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 7
An organization established an agreement with a partner company for specialized help desk services. A senior security officer within the organization Is tasked with providing documentation required to set up a dedicated VPN between the two entities. Which of the following should be required?
- A. SLA
- B. ISA
- C. NDA
- D. MOU
Answer: B
Explanation:
An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.
References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 36]
NEW QUESTION 8
A systems administrator is in the process of hardening the host systems before connecting to the network. The administrator wants to add protection to the boot loader to ensure the hosts are secure before the OS fully boots.
Which of the following would provide the BEST boot loader protection?
- A. TPM
- B. HSM
- C. PKI
- D. UEFI/BIOS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A TPM (trusted platform module) is a hardware device that can provide boot
loader protection by storing cryptographic keys and verifying the integrity of the boot process. An HSM (hardware security module) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for booting. A PKI (public key infrastructure) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication, but not boot loader protection. UEFI/BIOS are firmware interfaces that control the boot process, but they do not provide protection by themselves. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what- is-a-tpm-trusted-platform-module https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default- source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION 9
A company hired a third party to develop software as part of its strategy to be quicker to market. The company’s policy outlines the following requirements:
https://i.postimg.cc/8P9sB3zx/image.png
The credentials used to publish production software to the container registry should be
stored in a secure location.
Access should be restricted to the pipeline service account, without the ability for the third- party developer to read the credentials directly.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation for storing and monitoring access to these shared credentials?
- A. TPM
- B. Local secure password file
- C. MFA
- D. Key vault
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/tpm/tpm-fundamentals
A key vault is a service that provides secure storage and management of keys, secrets, and certificates. It can be used to store credentials used to publish production software to the container registry in a secure location, and restrict access to the pipeline service account without allowing the third-party developer to read the credentials directly. A TPM (trusted platform module) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing shared credentials. A local secure password file is a file that stores passwords in an encrypted format, but it is not as secure or scalable as a key vault. MFA (multi-factor authentication) is a method of verifying the identity of a user or device by requiring two or more factors, but it does not store credentials. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-key-vault https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
NEW QUESTION 10
Users are reporting intermittent access issues with & new cloud application that was recently added to the network. Upon investigation, he scary administrator notices the human resources department Is able to run required queries with the new application, but the marketing department is unable to pull any needed reports on various resources using the new application. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be done to avoid this in the future?
- A. Modify the ACLs.
- B. Review the Active Directory.
- C. Update the marketing department's browser.
- D. Reconfigure the WAF.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario
NEW QUESTION 11
A system administrator at a medical imaging company discovers protected health information (PHI) on a general-purpose file server. Which of the following steps should the administrator take NEXT?
- A. Isolate all of the PHI on its own VLAN and keep it segregated at Layer 2.
- B. Take an MD5 hash of the server.
- C. Delete all PHI from the network until the legal department is consulted.
- D. Consult the legal department to determine the legal requirements.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 12
A company recently deployed a SIEM and began importing logs from a firewall, a file server, a domain controller a web server, and a laptop. A security analyst receives a series of SIEM alerts and prepares to respond. The following is the alert information:
Which of the following should the security analyst do FIRST?
- A. Disable Administrator on abc-uaa-fsl, the local account is compromised
- B. Shut down the abc-usa-fsl server, a plaintext credential is being used
- C. Disable the jdoe account, it is likely compromised
- D. Shut down abc-usa-fw01; the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited
Answer: C
Explanation:
Based on the SIEM alerts, the security analyst should first disable the jdoe account, as it is likely compromised by an attacker. The alerts show that the jdoe account successfully logged on to the abc-usa-fsl server, which is a file server, and then initiated SMB (445) traffic to the abc-web01 server, which is a web server. This indicates that the attacker may be trying to exfiltrate data from the file server to the web server. Disabling the jdoe account would help stop this unauthorized activity and prevent further damage.
Disabling Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, the local account is compromised, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the local account is compromised or not. The alert shows that there was a successful logon event for Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if it was a local or domain account, or if it was authorized or not. Moreover, disabling the local account would not stop the SMB traffic from jdoe to abc- web01.
Shutting down the abc-usa-fsl server, a plaintext credential is being used, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if a plaintext credential is being used or not. The alert shows that there was RDP (3389) traffic from abc-admin1-logon to abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if the credential was encrypted or not. Moreover, shutting down the file server would disrupt its normal operations and affect other users.
Shutting down abc-usa-fw01; the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited or not. The alert shows that there was FTP (21) traffic from abc-usa-dcl to abc- web01, but it does not specify if it was related to the VPN or not. Moreover, shutting down the firewall would expose the network to other threats and affect other
services. References: What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is a SIEM Alert? | Cofense
NEW QUESTION 13
A high-severity vulnerability was found on a web application and introduced to the enterprise. The vulnerability could allow an unauthorized user to utilize an open-source library to view privileged user information. The enterprise is unwilling to accept the risk, but the developers cannot fix the issue right away.
Which of the following should be implemented to reduce the risk to an acceptable level until the issue can be fixed?
- A. Scan the code with a static code analyzer, change privileged user passwords, and provide security training.
- B. Change privileged usernames, review the OS logs, and deploy hardware tokens.
- C. Implement MFA, review the application logs, and deploy a WAF.
- D. Deploy a VPN, configure an official open-source library repository, and perform a full application review for vulnerabilities.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reference: https://www.microfocus.com/en-us/what-is/sast
Implementing MFA can add an extra layer of security to protect against unauthorized access if the vulnerability is exploited. Reviewing the application logs can help identify if any attempts have been made to exploit the vulnerability, and deploying a WAF can help block any attempts to exploit the vulnerability. While the other options may provide some level of security, they may not directly address the vulnerability and may not reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
NEW QUESTION 14
An organization is moving its intellectual property data from on premises to a CSP and wants to secure the data from theft. Which of the following can be used to mitigate this risk?
- A. An additional layer of encryption
- B. A third-party data integrity monitoring solution
- C. A complete backup that is created before moving the data
- D. Additional application firewall rules specific to the migration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services
https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp
NEW QUESTION 15
A security analyst is using data provided from a recent penetration test to calculate CVSS scores to prioritize remediation. Which of the following metric groups would the analyst need to determine to get the overall scores? (Select THREE).
- A. Temporal
- B. Availability
- C. Integrity
- D. Confidentiality
- E. Base
- F. Environmental
- G. Impact
- H. Attack vector
Answer: AEF
Explanation:
The three metric groups that are needed to calculate CVSS scores are Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics represent the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Temporal metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that may change over time but not across user environments. The Environmental metrics represent the characteristics of a vulnerability that are relevant and unique to a particular user’s environment. Verified References:
https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
https://www.first.org/cvss/specification-document
NEW QUESTION 16
An organization’s assessment of a third-party, non-critical vendor reveals that the vendor does not have cybersecurity insurance and IT staff turnover is high. The organization uses the vendor to move customer office equipment from one service location to another. The vendor acquires customer data and access to the business via an API. Given this information, which of the following is a noted risk?
- A. Feature delay due to extended software development cycles
- B. Financial liability from a vendor data breach
- C. Technical impact to the API configuration
- D. The possibility of the vendor’s business ceasing operations
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://legal.thomsonreuters.com/en/insights/articles/data-breach-liability
NEW QUESTION 17
A web service provider has just taken on a very large contract that comes with requirements that are currently not being implemented in order to meet contractual requirements, the company must achieve the following thresholds
• 99 99% uptime
• Load time in 3 seconds
• Response time = <1 0 seconds
Starting with the computing environment, which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST meet the requirements? (Select THREE)
- A. Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters
- B. Deploying a content delivery network
- C. Implementing server clusters
- D. Employing bare-metal loading of applications
- E. Lowering storage input/output
- F. Implementing RAID on the backup servers
- G. Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations
- H. Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers
Answer: BCE
Explanation:
To meet the contractual requirements of the web service provider, a security engineer should recommend the following actions:
✑ Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN is a distributed system of
servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the web service availability12.
✑ Implementing server clusters: A server cluster is a group of servers that work
together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for web services. A server cluster can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by distributing the workload across multiple servers, reducing the risk of single points of failure and performance bottlenecks. A server cluster can also help recover from failures by automatically switching to another server in case of a malfunction34.
✑ Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Storage I/O is the amount of data that can be
read from or written to a storage device in a given time. Storage I/O can affect the performance of web services by limiting the speed of data transfer between the servers and the storage devices. Lowering storage I/O can help improve the load time and response time of web services by reducing the latency and congestion of data access. Lowering storage I/O can be achieved by using faster storage devices, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), optimizing the storage layout and configuration, such as using RAID or striping, and caching frequently accessed data in memory5 .
Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help improve the security of web services by preventing unauthorized access and attacks, but it may also introduce additional latency and complexity to the network.
Employing bare-metal loading of applications is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Bare-metal loading is a technique that allows applications to run directly on hardware without an operating system or a hypervisor. Bare-metal loading can help improve the performance and efficiency of applications by eliminating the overhead and interference of other software layers, but it may also increase the difficulty and cost of deployment and maintenance.
Implementing RAID on the backup servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technique that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID can help improve the availability and security of backup data by protecting it from disk failures or corruption, but it may also introduce additional complexity and overhead to the backup process.
Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Redundant power is a technique that provides multiple sources of power for an IT system in case one fails. Redundant power can help improve the availability and reliability of developer workstations by preventing them from losing power due to outages or surges, but it may also increase the cost and energy consumption of the system.
Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Technological diversity is a technique that uses different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. Technological diversity can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it may also introduce additional complexity and inconsistency to the
environment. References: What Is CDN? How Does CDN Work? | Imperva, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, Server Clustering: What It Is & How It Works | Liquid Web, Storage I/O Performance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, [How
to Improve Storage I/O Performance | StarWind Blog], [What Is Firewall Security? | Cisco], [What is Bare Metal? | IBM], [What is RAID? | Dell Technologies US], [What Is Redundant Power Supply? | Dell Technologies US], [Technological Diversity - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]
NEW QUESTION 18
......
Thanks for reading the newest CAS-004 exam dumps! We recommend you to try the PREMIUM Dumpscollection.com CAS-004 dumps in VCE and PDF here: https://www.dumpscollection.net/dumps/CAS-004/ (342 Q&As Dumps)
