Exam Code: SY0-401 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 May SY0-401 Study Guide Questions:
Q711. A company’s chief information officer (CIO) has analyzed the financial loss associated with the company’s database breach. They calculated that one single breach could cost the company $1,000,000 at a minimum. Which of the following documents is the CIO MOST likely updating?
A. Succession plan
B. Continuity of operation plan
C. Disaster recovery plan
D. Business impact analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA) is the process of evaluating all of the critical systems in an organization to define impact and recovery plans. BIA isn’t concerned with external threats or vulnerabilities; the analysis focuses on the impact a loss would have on the organization. A BIA comprises the following: identifying critical functions, prioritizing critical business functions, calculating a timeframe for critical systems loss, and estimating the tangible impact on the organization.
Q712. Which of the following would be used as a secure substitute for Telnet?
Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally designed for Unix systems. It uses encryption to establish a secure connection between two systems. SSH also provides alternative, security-equivalent programs for such Unix standards as Telnet, FTP, and many other communications-oriented applications. SSH is available for use on Windows systems as well. This makes it the preferred method of security for Telnet and other cleartext oriented programs in the Unix environment.
Q713. Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
B. Mac filtering
TKIP is a suite of algorithms that works as a "wrapper" to WEP, which allows users of legacy WLAN equipment to upgrade to TKIP without replacing hardware. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but "wraps" additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it.
Renewal security+ sy0-401:
Q714. Jane, a security administrator, has been tasked with explaining authentication services to the company’s management team. The company runs an active directory infrastructure. Which of the following solutions BEST relates to the host authentication protocol within the company’s environment?
B. Least privilege
Kerberos was accepted by Microsoft as the chosen authentication protocol for Windows 2000 and Active Directory domains that followed.
Q715. Jane, a security analyst, is reviewing logs from hosts across the Internet which her company uses to gather data on new malware. Which of the following is being implemented by Jane’s company?
A. Vulnerability scanner
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Port scanner
The Internet hosts used to gather data on new malware are known as honeypots. A collection of honeypots is known as a honeynet. A honeynet is a network set up with intentional vulnerabilities; its purpose is to invite attack, so that an attacker's activities and methods can be studied and that information used to increase network security. A honeynet contains one or more honey pots, which are computer systems on the Internet expressly set up to attract and "trap" people who attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems. Although the primary purpose of a honeynet is to gather information about attackers' methods and motives, the decoy network can benefit its operator in other ways, for example by diverting attackers from a real network and its resources. The Honeynet Project, a non-profit research organization dedicated to computer security and information sharing, actively promotes the deployment of honeynets. In addition to the honey pots, a honeynet usually has real applications and services so that it seems like a normal network and a worthwhile target. However, because the honeynet doesn't actually serve any authorized users, any attempt to contact the network from without is likely an illicit attempt to breach its security, and any outbound activity is likely evidence that a system has been compromised. For this reason, the suspect information is much more apparent than it would be in an actual network, where it would have to be found amidst all the legitimate network data. Applications within a honeynet are often given names such as "Finances" or "Human Services" to make them sound appealing to the attacker.
A virtual honeynet is one that, while appearing to be an entire network, resides on a single server.
Q716. Which of the following is BEST at blocking attacks and providing security at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked. The effort to perform this customization can be significant and needs to be maintained as the application is modified.
As the protocols used to access a web server (typically HTTP and HTTPS) run in layer 7 of the OSI model, then web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer.
Vivid lead2pass sy0-401:
Q717. After analyzing and correlating activity from multiple sensors, the security administrator has determined that a group of very well organized individuals from an enemy country is responsible for various attempts to breach the company network, through the use of very sophisticated and targeted attacks. Which of the following is this an example of?
A. Privilege escalation
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Malicious insider threat
D. Spear phishing
Definitions of precisely what an APT is can vary widely, but can best be summarized by their named requirements: Advanced – Criminal operators behind the threat utilize the full spectrum of computer intrusion technologies and techniques. While individual components of the attack may not be classed as particularly “advanced” (e.g. malware components generated from commonly available DIY construction kits, or the use of easily procured exploit materials), their operators can typically access and develop more advanced tools as required. They combine multiple attack methodologies and tools in order to reach and compromise their target. Persistent – Criminal operators give priority to a specific task, rather than opportunistically seeking immediate financial gain. This distinction implies that the attackers are guided by external entities. The attack is conducted through continuous monitoring and interaction in order to achieve the defined objectives. It does not mean a barrage of constant attacks and malware updates. In fact, a “low-and-slow” approach is usually more successful. Threat – means that there is a level of coordinated human involvement in the attack, rather than a mindless and automated piece of code. The criminal operators have a specific objective and are skilled, motivated, organized and well funded.
Q718. Which of the following identifies certificates that have been compromised or suspected of being compromised?
A. Certificate revocation list
B. Access control list
C. Key escrow registry
D. Certificate authority
Certificates that have been compromised or are suspected of being compromised are revoked. A CRL is a locally stored record containing revoked certificates and revoked keys.
Q719. Matt, a security analyst, needs to implement encryption for company data and also prevent theft of company data. Where and how should Matt meet this requirement?
A. Matt should implement access control lists and turn on EFS.
B. Matt should implement DLP and encrypt the company database.
C. Matt should install Truecrypt and encrypt the company server.
D. Matt should install TPMs and encrypt the company database.
Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. Encryption is used to protect data.
Q720. The system administrator has deployed updated security controls for the network to limit risk of attack. The security manager is concerned that controls continue to function as intended to maintain appropriate security posture.
Which of the following risk mitigation strategies is MOST important to the security manager?
A. User permissions
B. Policy enforcement
C. Routine audits
D. Change management
After you have implemented security controls based on risk, you must perform routine audits. These audits should include reviews of user rights and permissions as well as specific events. You should pay particular attention to false positives and negatives.
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