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NEW QUESTION 1

A company wants to implement a disaster recovery site for non-critical applications, which can tolerate a short period of downtime. Which of the following types of sites should the company implement to achieve this goal?

• A. Hot
• B. Cold
• C. warm
• D. Passive

Answer: C

Explanation:
The type of site that the company should implement for non-critical applications that can tolerate a short period of downtime is a warm site. A warm site is a disaster recovery site that has some pre-installed equipment and software, but not as much as a hot site, which is fully operational and ready to take over the primary site’s functions in case of a disaster. A warm site requires some time and effort to activate and synchronize with the primary site, but not as much as a cold site, which has no equipment or software installed and requires a lot of configuration and testing. A passive site is not a common term for a disaster recovery site, but it could refer to a site that only receives backups from the primary site and does not actively participate in the network operations. References: CompTIA Network+ N10- 008 Certification Study Guide, page 347; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 13-10.

NEW QUESTION 2

A new global ISP needs to connect from central offices in North America to the United Kingdom. Which of the following would be the BEST cabling solution for this project?

• A. Single-mode
• B. Coaxial
• C. Cat 6a
• D. Twinaxial

Answer: A

Explanation:
For a new global ISP to connect from central offices in North America to the United Kingdom, the best cabling solution would be single-mode fiber optic cable. Single- mode fiber optic cable is a type of cable that is used to transmit data over long distances using light signals. It is typically used in long-haul communication networks, such as those that connect different countries or continents.

NEW QUESTION 3

A user stores large graphic files. The lime required to transfer the files to the server is excessive due to network congestion. The user's budget does not allow for the current switches to be replaced. Which of the following can be used to provide FASTER transfer times?

• A. Half duplex
• B. Jumbo frames
• C. LACP
• D. 802.1Q

Answer: B

Explanation:
Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames that can carry more than 1500 bytes of payload data. Jumbo frames can reduce the overhead and improve the throughput of large file transfers, as fewer frames are needed to send the same amount of data. Jumbo frames can be used to provide faster transfer times, as long as the network devices support them

NEW QUESTION 4

A new cabling certification is being requested every time a network technician rebuilds one end of a Cat 6 (vendor-certified) cable to create a crossover connection that is used to connect switches. Which of the following would address this issue by allowing the use of the original cable?

• A. CSMA/CD
• B. LACP
• C. PoE+
• D. MDIX

Answer: D

Explanation:
MDIX (medium-dependent interface crossover) is a feature that allows network devices to automatically detect and configure the appropriate cabling type, eliminating the need for crossover cables. By enabling MDIX on the switches, a technician can use the original Cat 6 cable to create a crossover connection.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Sixth Edition by Glen E. Clarke

NEW QUESTION 5

A technician is troubleshooting servers with high CPU usage. While trying to connect, the technician needs to open a port for remote access. Which of the following ports should the
technician open?

• A. 443
• B. 3321
• C. 8080
• D. 5900

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port 5900 is the default port used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC), a graphical desktop-sharing system that allows remote access to another computer’s screen, keyboard and mouse1. VNC is one of the tools that can be used for remote troubleshooting of servers with high CPU usage, as it enables the technician to see the server’s desktop and perform actions on it. Port 5900 is also one of the ports listed in the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam objectives under the section "1.4 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues"2.
The other ports are not commonly used for remote access. Port 443 is used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the communication between a web browser and a web server3. Port 3321 is used for Telepathy Broker Service, a service that provides communication between applications and telephony devices4. Port 8080 is used for HTTP Alternate, an alternative port for HTTP that is often used by web servers for testing or proxy purposes5.
References
1: Port 5900: What Is It Used for & How to Open It for RDP
2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: [What is HTTPS? - Definition from WhatIs.com]
4: [Telepathy Broker Service - Port 3321 - TCP/UDP]
5: [What is Port 8080? Why do some processes use this port?]

NEW QUESTION 6

An engineer is using a tool to run an ICMP sweep of a network to find devices that are online. When reviewing the results, the engineer notices a number of workstations that are currently verified as being online are not listed in the report.
The tool was configured to scan using the following information: Network address: 172.28.16.0
CIDR: /22
The engineer collected the following information from the client workstation: IP address: 172.28.17.206
Subnet mask: 255.255.252.0
Which of the following MOST likely explains why the tool is failing to detect some workstations?

• A. The scanned network range is incorrect.
• B. The subnet mask on the client is misconfigured.
• C. The workstation has a firewall enabled.
• D. The tool is unable to scan remote networks.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can block ICMP packets, which are used for ping and other diagnostic tools. If the workstation has a firewall enabled, it may not respond to the ICMP sweep and appear as offline. The engineer should check the firewall settings on the workstation and allow ICMP traffic if needed.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool.

NEW QUESTION 7

A technician is investigating why a PC cannot reach a file server with the IP address 192.168.8.129. Given the following TCP/IP network configuration:

Which of the following configurations on the PC is incorrect?

• A. Subnet mask
• B. IPv4 address
• C. Default gateway
• D. IPv6 address

Answer: C

Explanation:
The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the PC to other networks. The default gateway should be on the same subnet as the PC’s IPv4 address. However, in this case, the default gateway is 192.168.9.1, which is on a different subnet than the PC’s IPv4 address of 192.168.8.15. Therefore, the default gateway configuration on the PC is incorrect and prevents the PC from reaching the file server on another subnet.

NEW QUESTION 8

A network engineer needs to enable device monitoring using authentication and encryption. Which of the following protocols offers this option?

• A. ESP
• B. SNMPv3
• C. NetFIow
• D. SSLv3

Answer: B

Explanation:
SNMPv3 is a protocol that offers device monitoring using authentication and encryption. SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, and it is a standard way of collecting and organizing information about network devices, such as routers, switches, servers, printers, and so on. SNMPv3 is the latest version of SNMP, and it provides enhanced security features, such as data integrity, data origin authentication, data confidentiality, and access control. SNMPv3 can use different algorithms to encrypt and authenticate the communication between the network management system and the
network devices12. References:
✑ Network Monitoring Tools – CompTIA Network+ N10-006 – 2.12
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 93

NEW QUESTION 9

A user took a laptop on a trip and made changes to the network parameters while at the airport. The user can access all internet websites but not corporate intranet websites. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

• A. Duplicate IP address
• B. Duplicate SSID
• C. Incorrect DNS
• D. Incorrect subnet mask

Answer: C

Explanation:
DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Corporate intranet websites are usually hosted on private IP addresses that are not accessible from the public internet. Therefore, the user’s laptop needs to use the correct DNS server that can resolve the intranet domain names to the private IP addresses. If the user changed the network parameters at the airport and did not revert them back, the laptop might be using a public DNS server that does not have the records for the intranet websites. This would cause the user to access all internet websites but not corporate intranet websites.
References:
✑ An Overview of DNS - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.61
✑ DNS Configuration – CompTIA A+ 220-11012
✑ CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 53

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following DNS records maps an alias to a true name?

• A. AAAA
• B. NS
• C. TXT
• D. CNAME

Answer: D

Explanation:
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is a type of DNS (Domain Name System) record that maps an alias name to a canonical or true domain name. For example, a CNAME record can map blog.example.com to example.com, which means that blog.example.com is an alias of example.com. A CNAME record is useful when you want to point multiple subdomains to the same IP address, or when you want to change the IP address of a domain without affecting the subdomains1.

NEW QUESTION 11

Branch users are experiencing issues with videoconferencing. Which of the following will the company MOST likely configure to improve performance for these applications?

• A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
• B. Dynamic routing
• C. Quality of service
• D. Network load balancer
• E. Static IP addresses

Answer: C

Explanation:
To improve performance for videoconferencing, the company should configure Quality of Service (QoS). This technology allows for the prioritization of network traffic, ensuring that videoconferencing traffic is given higher priority and therefore better performance. Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP), Dynamic routing, Network load balancer, and Static IP addresses are not directly related to improving performance for videoconferencing.
References:
✑ Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, implement and configure the appropriate wireless security and implement the appropriate QoS concepts.

NEW QUESTION 12

A computer engineer needs to ensure that only a specific workstation can connect to port 1 on a switch. Which of the following features should the engineer configure on the switch interface?

• A. Port tagging
• B. Port security
• C. Port mirroring
• D. Port aggregation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Port security is a feature that can be configured on a switch interface to limit and identify the MAC addresses of workstations that are allowed to connect to that specific port. This can help ensure that only a specific workstation (or workstations) can connect to the interface. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, “Port security can be used to specify which MAC addresses are allowed to connect to a particular switch port. If a port security violation is detected, the switch can take a number of different actions, such as shutting down the port, sending an SNMP trap, or sending an email alert.”

NEW QUESTION 13

A network administrator is trying to create a subnet, which is the most efficient size possible, for 31 laptops. Which of the following network subnets would be best in this situation?

• A. 10.10.10.0/24
• B. 10.10.10.0/25
• C. 10.10.10.0/26
• D. 10.10.10.0/27

Answer: D

Explanation:
A /27 subnet mask has 32 IP addresses, of which 30 are usable for hosts. This is the smallest subnet that can accommodate 31 laptops, as the other options have either too few or too many IP addresses. A /27 subnet mask is equivalent to 255.255.255.224 in decimal notation, and has a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.31. The network address is 10.10.10.0, and the broadcast address is 10.10.10.31. The usable host range is 10.10.10.1 to 10.10.10.30.
References
1: Subnet Cheat Sheet – 24 Subnet Mask, 30, 26, 27, 29, and other IP Address CIDR Network References
2: IP Subnet Calculator

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following ports is commonly used by VoIP phones?

• A. 20
• B. 143
• C. 445
• D. 5060

Answer: D

Explanation:
TCP/UDP port 5060 is commonly used by VoIP phones. It is the default port for SIP (Session Initiation Protocol), which is a signaling protocol that establishes, modifies, and terminates multimedia sessions over IP networks. SIP is widely used for VoIP applications such as voice and video calls. References: https://www.voip-info.org/session- initiation-protocol/

NEW QUESTION 15

A company's primary ISP is experiencing an outage. However, the network administrator notices traffic continuing to flow through a secondary connection to the same ISP. Which of the following BEST describes this configuration?

• A. Diverse paths
• B. Load balancing
• C. Multipathing
• D. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the Mowing architectures reduces network latency by enforcing a limit on the number of switching devices on the frame's path between any internal hosts?

• A. Spine and leaf
• B. Software-defined network
• C. Three-tiered
• D. Collapsed core

Answer: A

Explanation:
It does this by using a two-level hierarchy of switches, where the spine switches connect to the leaf switches, which in turn connect to the end hosts. This reduces the number of hops a packet must take from one host to another, thus reducing latency. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Guide, the Spine and Leaf topology is a modern architecture that is used to reduce latency in large networks.

NEW QUESTION 17

A technician wants to deploy a new wireless network that comprises 30 WAPs installed throughout a three-story office building. All the APs will broadcast the same SSID for client access. Which of the following BEST describes this deployment?

• A. Extended service set
• B. Basic service set
• C. Unified service set
• D. Independent basic service set

Answer: A

Explanation:
An extended service set (ESS) is a wireless network that consists of multiple access points (APs) that share the same SSID and are connected by a wired network. An ESS allows wireless clients to roam seamlessly between different APs without losing connectivity. A basic service set (BSS) is a wireless network that consists of a single AP and its associated clients. An independent basic service set (IBSS) is a wireless network that consists of a group of clients that communicate directly without an AP. A unified service set is not a standard term for a wireless network. References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008- exam-objectives-(2-0), https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Service_set_(802.11_network)

NEW QUESTION 18
SIMULATION
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t! The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed INSTRUCTONS
Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

• A. Yes
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

A user calls the IT department to report being unable to log in after locking the computer The user resets the password, but later in the day the user is again unable to log in after locking the computer Which of the following attacks against the user IS MOST likely taking place?

• A. Brute-force
• B. On-path
• C. Deauthentication
• D. Phishing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20

An auditor assessing network best practices was able to connect a rogue switch into a network Jack and get network connectivity. Which of the following controls would BEST address this risk?

• A. Activate port security on the switchports providing end user access.
• B. Deactivate Spanning Tree Protocol on network interfaces that are facing public areas.
• C. Disable Neighbor Resolution Protocol in the Layer 2 devices.
• D. Ensure port tagging is in place for network interfaces in guest areas

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21
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