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Q141. Which of the following is a management control?
A. Logon banners
B. Written security policy
C. SYN attack prevention
D. Access Control List (ACL)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Management control types include risk assessment, planning, systems and Services Acquisition as well as Certification, Accreditation and Security Assessment; and written security policy falls in this category.
Q142. Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following?
1 PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80
2 DENY IP ANY ANY
A. Firewall
B. NIPS
C. Load balancer
D. URL filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firewalls, routers, and even switches can use ACLs as a method of security management. An access control list has a deny ip any any implicitly at the end of any access control list. ACLs deny by default and allow by exception.
Q143. Which of the following is the MOST intrusive type of testing against a production system?
A. White box testing
B. War dialing
C. Vulnerability testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Penetration testing is the most intrusive type of testing because you are actively trying to circumvent the system’s security controls to gain access to the system. Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in.
Pen test strategies include:
Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out.
External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access.
Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause.
Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive.
Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures.
Q144. Which of the following best practices makes a wireless network more difficult to find?
A. Implement MAC filtering
B. UseWPA2-PSK
C. Disable SSID broadcast
D. Power down unused WAPs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public use.
Q145. Several users report to the administrator that they are having issues downloading files from the file server. Which of the following assessment tools can be used to determine if there is an issue with the file server?
A. MAC filter list
B. Recovery agent
C. Baselines
D. Access list
Answer: C
Explanation:
The standard configuration on a server is known as the baseline. In this question, we can see if
anything has changed on the file server by comparing its current configuration with the baseline.
The IT baseline protection approach is a methodology to identify and implement computer security
measures in an organization. The aim is the achievement of an adequate and appropriate level of
security for IT systems. This is known as a baseline.
A baseline report compares the current status of network systems in terms of security updates,
performance or other metrics to a predefined set of standards (the baseline).
Update SY0-401 exam guide:
Q146. Company XYZ has encountered an increased amount of buffer overflow attacks. The programmer has been tasked to identify the issue and report any findings. Which of the following is the FIRST step of action recommended in this scenario?
A. Baseline Reporting
B. Capability Maturity Model
C. Code Review
D. Quality Assurance and Testing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q147. Company XYZ recently salvaged company laptops and removed all hard drives, but the Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned about disclosure of confidential information. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to dispose of these hard drives?
A. Degaussing
B. Physical Destruction
C. Lock up hard drives in a secure safe
D. Wipe
Answer: B
Explanation:
The physical description of hard drives is the only secure means of disposing hard drives. This can include incineration, an acid bath, and crushing.
Q148. Which of the following is a way to implement a technical control to mitigate data loss in case of a mobile device theft?
A. Disk encryption
B. Encryption policy
C. Solid state drive
D. Mobile device policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Disk and device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.
Q149. The librarian wants to secure the public Internet kiosk PCs at the back of the library. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate? (Select TWO).
A. Device encryption
B. Antivirus
C. Privacy screen
D. Cable locks
E. Remote wipe
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
B: Antivirus software is used to protect systems against viruses, which are a form of malicious code designed to spread from one system to another, consuming network resources. Public systems are particularly prone to viruses.
D: Cable locks are theft deterrent devices that can be used to tether a device to a fixed point keep devices from being easy to steal.
Q150. Joe, the security administrator, has determined that one of his web servers is under attack. Which of the following can help determine where the attack originated from?
A. Capture system image
B. Record time offset
C. Screenshots
D. Network sniffing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Network sniffing is the process of capturing and analyzing the packets sent between systems on
the network. A network sniffer is also known as a Protocol Analyzer.
A Protocol Analyzer is a hardware device or more commonly a software program used to capture
network data communications sent between devices on a network. Capturing and analyzing the
packets sent to the web server will help determine the source IP address of the system sending
the packets.
Well known software protocol analyzers include Message Analyzer (formerly Network Monitor)
from Microsoft and Wireshark (formerly Ethereal).
