Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 Apr HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q301. You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. Rick, a Sales Manager, asks you to configure his tablet PC in such a way that he can copy and paste text quickly. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task?
A. Configure flicks for the desired task.
B. Configure an automatic script to run the desired task at the tap event.
C. Configure a keyboard shortcut for the desired task.
D. Configure an automatic script to run the desired task at the double tap event.
Explanation: In order to accomplish the task, you will have to configure flicks for the desired task. Flick is a gesture made by a tablet pen by quickly dragging the pen in a straight line across the screen for approximately an inch (2.5cm). It triggers an event on which Windows Vista is configured to take action. The default actions are scroll up, scroll down, forward, and back, which are assigned to the up, down, right, and left flicks, respectively. Vista can be configured to take action on up to eight different flicks. These actions can be defined by selecting the Navigational Flicks and Editing Flicks option in the flicks tab of Pen and Input Devices. Answer: B, D are incorrect. These are the most common events in a tablet PC. Changing the default action of tap and double tap events will be a bad move, as it will hamper the productivity of the user working on the tablet PC. Answer: C is incorrect. As most of the work is performed through the pen in the tablet PC, configuring a keyboard shortcut will not help resolve the issue.
Q302. According to the USB 2.0 standard, what should be the maximum cable length between devices?
A. 4.5 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 5 meters
D. 1 meter
Explanation: According to the USB 2.0 standard, the maximum cable length between devices should be 5 meters.
Q303. Which of the following refers to an electronic version of patient data that is compiled from several different facilities and healthcare providers?
A. Archived Health Information
B. Electronic Health Record
C. Electronic Medical Record
D. Demographic Health Information
Explanation: Electronic Health Record is a compilation of core data from multiple sources and may be comprised of several different e-records submitted by several different providers.
Q304. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. All the computers on the network are connected to a switch device. Users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server. You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server's own loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists. What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. The server's NIC is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
Explanation: According to the question. ping the loopback address of the server failed. If pinging the server's own loopback address fails, it shows that the server's NIC is not working. Loopback addresses are IP addresses with 127 in their first octet. These addresses are used to test TCP/IP configuration. It uses a loopback driver to reroute the outgoing packets back to the source computer. Answer: D is incorrect. Automatic IP addressing is out of context for this scenario. Answer: A is incorrect. The cable connection is not the likely issue, as you are unable to ping the server's own loopback address. If the cable connection between the server and the switch was broken, you would have had to at least ping the server's loopback address. Answer: C is incorrect. The failure of the pinging of the loopback address indicates that the problem is with the NIC.
Q305. Which of the following database models is simply a collection of objects related by an object that has certain characteristics?
A. Enterprise Model
B. Network Model
C. Hierarchal Model
D. Object Oriented Model
Explanation: The object oriented model is essentially a collection of objects, related by encapsulation (an object such as a patient has certain characteristics) or inheritance (an object such as a resident inherits characteristics from a physician object). There is no primary key in this model. Answer: C is incorrect. Hierarchal model is incorrect as this database model uses the format of a typical parent-child arrangement, whereas, one piece of information can have many subordinated pieces. Answer: B is incorrect. Network model is incorrect as this model is designed to allow the child to have more than one parent. This model is often referred to as the many to many model. Answer: A is incorrect. Enterprise model is meant as a distractor, the enterprise database model does not exist.
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Q306. You are asked to install an information system in the Nuclear Medicine department in order to record the use of radioisotopes. Which type of information system would you install for this purpose?
A. Enterprise System
B. Intradepartmental System
C. External System
D. Departmental System
Explanation: A departmental information system is a system that is that is limited and serves the purposes of one department or domain. Examples are dose management systems that are used by pharmacies. Answer: A is incorrect. Enterprise system is incorrect as this type of system is designed for use for all departments that encompass a large health system including hospitals, clinics and nursing homes. Answer: C is incorrect. External system is incorrect as this type of system is shared by many health organizations to report information required by regulatory agencies or as an information exchange for regional health information networks. Answer: B is incorrect. Intradepartmental system is incorrect as this type of system is primarily used by one department but shares functions and information with other departments.
Q307. Which of the following ports support hot swapping? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
C. IEEE 1394
Explanation: USB and IEEE 1394 ports support hot swapping.
Identify the PS/2 keyboard port in the image given below.
The PS/2 port is developed by IBM for connecting a mouse or keyboard to a computer. The PS/2 port supports a mini DIN plug containing 6 pins. The PS/2 keyboard port generally comes in purple color. The PS/2 mouse port generally comes in green color.
Q309. Which of the following works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)?
Explanation: A virtual private network (VPN) is a form of wide area network (WAN) that supplies network connectivity over a possibly long physical distance. A virtual private network is a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network. A virtual private network can be contrasted with an expensive system of owned or leased lines that can only be used by one organization. The goal of a VPN is to provide the organization with the same capabilities, but at a much lower cost. A VPN works by using the shared public infrastructure while maintaining privacy through security procedures and tunneling protocols such as the Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). In effect, the protocols, by encrypting data at the sending end and decrypting it at the receiving end, send the data through a tunnel that cannot be entered by data that is not properly encrypted. An additional level of security involves encrypting not only the data, but also the originating and receiving network addresses. Answer: C is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a data stream. IPsec also includes protocols for establishing mutual authentication between agents at the beginning of the session and negotiation of cryptographic keys to be used during the session. IPsec can be used to protect data flows between a pair of hosts, between a pair of security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host. Answer: A is incorrect. Secure Shell (SSH) is a program that is used for logging into a remote computer over a network. Secure Shell can be used to execute commands on a remote machine and to move files from one machine to another. SSH uses strong authentication and secure communications over insecure channels. Answer: B is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. E-mailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP, port number 25. However, e-mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers.
Q310. You are asked to design an information system in which the client-server platform is based on the following schematic. What type of architecture is incorporated within your information system?
A. Three-Tier Architecture
B. WAN Technology
C. Two-Tier Architecture
D. LAN Technology
Explanation: Three tier architecture is a client-server platform that encompasses a PC, a database and an application server that contains software to process the data. Answer: D is incorrect. LAN Technology is incorrect as this is a mode of communication, not a client-server platform, that this refers to Communication devices in a small geographic area such as PC and printer or PC and PC within a facility. Answer: B is incorrect. WAN Technology is incorrect as as this is a mode of communication, not a client-server platform, that allows for communication among a large geographic environment such as two or more LANs connected via a telephone system or satellite. Answer: C is incorrect. Two-tier architecture is incorrect as this is a client-server platform that consists simply with a PC interfaced with a database.
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Q311. You are asked to convert all paper medical records to a digital format. Which of the following tasks are you being asked to perform?
A. Document Imaging
B. Device Capture
C. Document Archiving
D. Clinical Imaging
Explanation: Document imaging involves prepping, scanning, indexing and performing quality control on paper documents that are entered into a computerized system. Answer: B is incorrect. Device capture is the act of transmitting medical information directly from a medical device such as electrocardiogram. Answer: C is incorrect. Document archiving is the act of ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location. Answer: D is incorrect. Clinical imaging refers to medical information that is obtained by the use of photographs or other medical imaging devices that need to be a part of the patient's permanent medical record.
Q312. Which of the following is a temporary dip in the voltage on the supply line that usually lasts only a fraction of a second?
A. Power Spike
C. Power Sag
D. Power Surge
Explanation: A power sag is a temporary dip in the voltage on the supply line that usually lasts only a fraction of a second. It is the opposite of power surge and it indicates a sudden demand for power on the power grid that creates a wave of low voltage on the electrical system. The PC's power supply has some power in reserve to pull up short power sags but a series of power sags in a short time can effect the power supply's ability to provide the correct voltage to internal components of a PC, and can weaken, damage, or destroy them. Answer: A is incorrect. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Lightning carries millions of volts, and if a home or office takes a direct hit, a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. Answer: D is incorrect. Power surge is a sharp increase in the voltage or an over voltage event. It is a short and temporary increase in voltage on the power grid and it is like a rough wave. Different types of electrical disturbance such as lightning storm, distant lightning strikes, or problems on the electrical power supply grid can cause the voltage to suddenly increase. Answer: B is incorrect. EMI stands for electromagnetic interference, which is also known as radio frequency interference or RFI. It is a disturbance that affects an electrical circuit due to either electromagnetic conduction or electromagnetic radiation emitted from an external source.
Q313. Where is the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used?
A. On the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages
B. On the World Wide Web (WWW) to display SQL database statistics
C. On the Internet to downloaC, Dompress graphic files
D. On a peer-to-peer based Local Area Network (LAN)
E. On a client/server-based Wide Area Network (WAN)
Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a client/server TCP/IP protocol used on the World Wide Web (WWW) to display Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) pages. HTTP defines how messages are formatted and transmitted, and what actions Web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands. For example, when a client application or browser sends a request to the server using HTTP commands, the server responds with a message containing the protocol version, success or failure code, server information, and body content, depending on the request. HTTP uses TCP port 80 as the default port.
Q314. Which of the following devices controls the power supply of various devices and components installed in a computer system?
Explanation: A Switched-mode power supply (also Switching-mode power supply, SMPS, or simply Switcher) is an electronic Power Supply Unit (PSU) that incorporates a switching regulator in order to provide the required output voltage. An SMPS is actually a power converter that transmits power from a source (e.g., a battery or the electrical power grid) to a load (e.g., a personal computer) with ideally no loss. The function of the converter is to provide a reliable output voltage often at a different level than the input voltage. Answer: B is incorrect. A motherboard is the physical arrangement in a computer that contains the computer's basic circuitry and components. On the typical motherboard, the circuitry is imprinted or affixed to the surface of a firm planar surface and usually manufactured in a single step. The most common motherboard design in desktop computers today is the AT, based on the IBM AT motherboard. A more recent motherboard specification, ATX, improves on the AT design. In both the AT and ATX designs, the computer components included in the motherboard are as follows. The microprocessor Memory Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) Expansion slot Interconnecting circuitry The structure of a motherboard is shown in the figure below:
Answer: A is incorrect. The Central Processing Unit (CPU) or the processor is the portion of a computer system that carries out the instructions of a computer program. It is a multifunctional integrated circuit that is essential for a computer system. It is the primary element carrying out the computer's functions. CPU is made up of several parts that work together to carry out the instructions and actions. The CPU has following components.
Answer: C is incorrect. A jumper is a short length of conductor used to close a break in or bypass part of an electrical circuit. Jumpers are typically used to set up or adjust printed circuit boards, such as the motherboards of computers. Jumper pins (points to be connected by the jumper) are arranged in groups called jumper blocks, each group having at least one pair of contact points and often more. When a jumper is placed over two or more jumper pins, an electrical connection is made between them, and the equipment is thus instructed to activate certain settings accordingly. Jumper blocks and jumpers are also often used on motherboards to clear the CMOS information, resetting the BIOS configuration settings.
Q315. In addition to conducting a risk assessment, HIPAA requires that you put together policies about your risk assessment procedures. As the privacy officer in the dermatology practice, what types of issues might you address in your risk assessment policies? A. What procedures to follow once a risk has been identified
B. What areas a risk assessment would review
C. How frequently a risk assessment should occur
D. All of the above
Explanation: All of the above. CMS in a publication designed to help CE's (covered entities) comply with HIPAA's Security rule strongly suggests that a best practice is to develop policies that address all three of these areas. a)the frequency of assessments (annually, quarterly, etc.) b)the areas that such assessments need to review (e.g. computer systems, staff trainings, administrative management, etc.) c)procedures to follow once a risk has been identified (e.g. documentation, recommendations, fixing the issue, creating a policy or procedure to prevent risk in the future) Answer: C, B, and A are incorrect. Correct, but not enough.