[Jun 2016] comptia healthcare it hit-001 guide

Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 Jun HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:

Q1. Which of the following refers to the group of health care subject matter experts and information scientists who create the standards for exchange, management and integration of electronic health records? 

A. DICOM 

B. Health Level 7 

C. EMTALA 

D. HIPPA 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Health Level 7 (HL7) is an international community of healthcare subject matter experts and information scientists collaborating to create standards for the exchange, management and integration of electronic healthcare information. HL7 promotes the use of such informatics standards within and among healthcare organizations to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of healthcare information delivery for the benefit of all. Answer: D is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this is the legislation designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information. 


Q2. Which of the following are vulnerable to social engineering attacks?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. 

A. An office with a biometrics authentication system 

B. Minimal trained company employees 

C. A public building that has shared office space 

D. Encrypted data on the hard disk drive 

Answer: BC 

Explanation: Minimal trained company employees and a public building that has shared office space are vulnerable to social engineering attacks. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose useful information such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain access to a user's computer or network. This method involves mental ability of people to trick someone rather than their technical skills. A user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name, password, computer name, IP address, employee ID, or other information that can be misused. Answer: A, D are incorrect. An office with a biometrics authentication system and encrypted data on the hard disk drive are not vulnerable to social engineering attacks. 


Q3. There are a number of computers containing Electronic PHI (EPHR) in your covered entity that have become really sluggish and chock full of stuff that slows them down. You are trying to decide how to replace them or fix them so that they can run faster because staff morale is really starting 

to sink over frustrations with the machines. You have several options, except. 

A. Lease better machines, expose the old machines to a destructive magnetic field, and take them to the recycler. 

B. Buy new machines and throw these dinosaurs in the dumpster out back. 

C. Completely erase and reformat the drives so that they run faster. 

D. Melt, shred, incinerate or pulverize the hard drives and replace them with new, faster hard drives. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: HIPAA prohibits dumping machines that contain PHI without first destroying the information or the ability to get the information. The ways that the information can be destroyed are listed in the other three answers. Answer: A is incorrect. A magnetic field can reduce the data on the machines to an unrecoverable state and then allow for the machines to be recycled or dumped. Recycling an old computer may be legally required in some states, but if the drive information is still accessible, this is a violation of HIPAA. Before it is put into the recycling process, the drives that contain its information must be destroyed, written over, magnetically disrupted or erased in such a way that there is no possibility for further PHI access. Some recycling centers offer these services. Answer: D is incorrect. This option lists ways that HIPAA prescribes for eliminating the risk of accessing the EPHI. Answer: C is incorrect. HIPAA also allows for the drives to be written over or erased in such a way that ensures that the original EPHI cannot be retrieved or recovered. 


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Q4. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. All the computers on the network are connected to a switch device. Users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server. You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server's own loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists. What is the most likely cause? 

A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken. 

B. The server's NIC is not working. 

C. The switch device is not working. 

D. Automatic IP addressing is not working. 

Answer: B 

Explanation: According to the question. ping the loopback address of the server failed. If pinging the server's own loopback address fails, it shows that the server's NIC is not working. Loopback addresses are IP addresses with 127 in their first octet. These addresses are used to test TCP/IP configuration. It uses a loopback driver to reroute the outgoing packets back to the source computer. Answer: D is incorrect. Automatic IP addressing is out of context for this scenario. Answer: A is incorrect. The cable connection is not the likely issue, as you are unable to ping the server's own loopback address. If the cable connection between the server and the switch was broken, you would have had to at least ping the server's loopback address. Answer: C is incorrect. The failure of the pinging of the loopback address indicates that the problem is with the NIC. 


Q5. While working a healthcare facility, you notice a patient's EHR does not contain any electronic signatures verifying the contents of the EHR. This EHR does not meet compliance standards set forth by which of the following titles? 

A. Title 21 CFR Part 11 

B. Title 21 CFR Part 7 

C. Title 21 CFR Part 21 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Part 11 as it is commonly called, defines the criteria under which electronic records and electronic signatures are considered to be trustworthy, reliable and equivalent to paper records. Part 11 requires, drug makers, medical device manufactures , biotech companies, biologics developers, and other FDA-regulated industries, with some specific exceptions, to implement controls, including audits, system validations, audit trails, electronic signatures, and documentation for software and systems involved in processing electronic data. Answer: B is incorrect. Title 21 CFR Part 7 is incorrect as this part refers to enforcement policies regarding recalls of food, drugs or cosmetics. Answer: C is incorrect. Title 21 CFR Part 20 is incorrect as this part refers to information that may or not be shared with the general public. Answer: is incorrect. Title 21 CFR Part 21 is incorrect as this part refers to records about individuals that are maintained, collected, used, or disclosed by the Food and Drug Administration and contained in Privacy Act Record Systems. 


Q6. Which of the following is true about the TELNET utility? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. 

A. It uses TCP port 23. 

B. It uses the RDP protocol to connect to a remote computer. 

C. It allows users to communicate with a remote computer. 

D. It transmits data in clear text. 

Answer: ACD 

Explanation: Telnet is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the Telnet server service. Telnet allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The Telnet utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer: B is incorrect. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer. 


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Q7. Which of the following statements about PGP are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. 

A. It uses both a public key and a private key. 

B. It is an encryption technique. 

C. It is a payment gateway. 

D. It processes both digital cash and credit card payments. 

Answer: AB 

Explanation: Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption method that uses public-key encryption to encrypt and digitally sign e-mail messages during communication between e-mail clients. Public key encryption is an asymmetric scheme that uses a pair of keys for encryption. the public key encrypts data and the corresponding secret key (private key) decrypts the data. For digital signatures, the process is reversed. the sender uses the secret key (private key) to create a unique electronic number that can be read by anyone who possesses the corresponding public key, which verifies that the message is truly from the sender. PGP is effective, easy to use, and free. Therefore, it is one of the most common ways to protect messages on the Internet. 


Q8. You have been hired to design a TCP/IP-based network that will contain both Unix and Windows computers. You are planning a name resolution strategy. Which of the following services will best suit the requirements of the network? 

A. WINS 

B. DNS 

C. APIPA 

D. LMHOSTS 

E. DHCP 

Answer: B 

Explanation: You should plan to install DNS to fulfill the requirements of the network. 


Q9. You are billed $150.00 for medical services received from your primary care physician. You can only afford to pay $90.00 and your physician accepts that amount. This is an example of which of the following payment terms? 

A. Sliding Scale Fee 

B. Capitation 

C. Customary Charges 

D. Fee for Services 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Sliding scale fee is a payment term which is common in low income areas and is based on the patient's ability to pay. Answer: B is incorrect. Capitation is incorrect as this payment term is a pre-paid amount based on a per-person or per-capita amount. Answer: C is incorrect. A customary charge is incorrect as this type of payment term is based on what is normally charged or what is reasonable for the service provided. Answer: D is incorrect. Fee for Services in incorrect as this term of payment is dependent on the cost of the provider to provide services such as lab tests, x-rays etc. Hospitals or other facilities receiving fee for service are paid for each individual service that is provided. 


Q10. Which of the following data types encompassed in a patient's EHR would include the dictation of a chest x-ray from an interpreting radiologist? 

A. Signals 

B. Voice 

C. Images 

D. Numbers 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Voice data is a type of data that may be found in a patient's electronic health record. 

Examples of voice data include stored dictations of radiology images from interpreting radiologist, or any other dictated evaluation. 



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