# All About Simulation SY0-701 Exams

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Online SY0-701 free questions and answers of New Version:

NEW QUESTION 1

A financial institution would like to store its customer data in the cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution Is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would best meet the requirement?

• A. Asymmetric
• B. Symmetric
• C. Homomorphic
• D. Ephemeral

Answer: C

Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References:
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-crypt

NEW QUESTION 2

A security analyst reviews web server logs and notices the following line: 104.35. 45.53 [22/May/2020:07 : 00:58 +0100] "GET . UNION ALL SELECT
user login, user _ pass, user email from wp users—— HTTP/I.I" 200 1072
http://www.example.com/wordpress/wp—admin/
Which of the following vulnerabilities is the attacker trying to exploit?

• A. SSRF
• B. CSRF
• C. xss
• D. SQLi

Answer: D

Explanation:
SQLi stands for SQL injection, which is a type of web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL statements on a database server. SQLi can result in data theft, data corruption, denial of service, or remote code execution.
The attacker in the web server log is trying to exploit a SQLi vulnerability by sending a malicious GET request that contains a UNION ALL SELECT statement. This statement is used to combine the results of two or more SELECT queries into a single result set. The attacker is attempting to retrieve user login, user pass, and user email from the wp users table, which is a WordPress database table that stores user information. The attacker may use this information to compromise the WordPress site or the users’ accounts.

NEW QUESTION 3

A security team is conducting a security review of a hosted data provider. The management team has asked the hosted data provider to share proof that customer data is being appropriately protected.
Which of the following would provide the best proof that customer data is being protected?

• A. SOC2
• B. CSA
• C. CSF
• D. 1SO 31000

Answer: A

Explanation:
SOC2 is a type of audit report that provides assurance on the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization’s systems. It is based on the Trust Services Criteria developed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA). A SOC2 report can provide proof that customer data is being appropriately protected by the hosted data provider1
https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454/ 3: https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454os/ 1: https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/blog/2021/08/20/star-testimonial-csa-star-soc2-from-readiness-to-attestation/

NEW QUESTION 4

A security team suspects that the cause of recent power consumption overloads is the unauthorized use of empty power outlets in the network rack Which of the following options will mitigate this issue without compromising the number of outlets available?

• A. Adding a new UPS dedicated to the rack
• B. Installing a managed PDU
• C. Using only a dual power supplies unit
• D. Increasing power generator capacity

Answer: B

Explanation:
A managed Power Distribution Unit (PDU) allows you to monitor and control power outlets on the rack. This will allow the security team to identify which devices are drawing power and from which outlets, which can help to identify any unauthorized devices. Moreover, with a managed PDU, you can also control the power to outlets, turn off outlets that are not in use, and set up alerts if an outlet is overloaded. This will help to mitigate the issue of power consumption overloads without compromising the number of outlets available.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom

NEW QUESTION 5

A security engineer updated an application on company workstations. The application was running before the update, but it is no longer launching successfully. Which of the following most likely needs to be updated?

• A. Blocklist
• B. Deny list
• C. Quarantine list
• D. Approved fist

Answer: D

Explanation:
Approved list is a list of applications or programs that are allowed to run on a system or network. An approved list can prevent unauthorized or malicious software from running and compromising the security of the system or network. An approved list can also help with patch management and compatibility issues. If the security engineer updated an application on the company workstations, the application may need to be added or updated on the approved list to be able to launch successfully. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification
Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of
embedded and specialized systems security 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12,
Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.1: Implement secure network architecture concepts 3
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-application-whitelisting

NEW QUESTION 6

A help desk technician receives a phone call from someone claiming to be a part of the organization's cybersecurity incident response team. The caller asks the technician to verify the network's internal firewall IP address. Which of the following is the technician's best course of action?

• A. Direct the caller to stop by the help desk in person and hang up declining any further requests from the caller.
• B. Ask for the caller's name, verify the person's identity in the email directory, and provide the requested information over the phone.
• C. Write down the phone number of the caller if possible, the name of the person requesting the information, hang up, and notify the organization's cybersecurity officer.
• D. Request the caller send an email for identity verification and provide the requested information via email to the caller.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the best course of action for the help desk technician because it can help prevent a potential social engineering attack. Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. The caller may be impersonating a member of the organization’s cybersecurity incident response team to obtain the network’s internal firewall IP address, which could be used for further attacks. The help desk technician should not provide any information over the phone without verifying the caller’s identity and authorization. The help desk technician should also report the incident to the organization’s cybersecurity officer for investigation and response. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/social-engineering-explained
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd

NEW QUESTION 7

A security operations technician is searching the log named /vax/messages for any events that were associated with a workstation with the IP address 10.1.1.1. Which of the following would provide this information?

• A. cat /var/messages | grep 10.1.1.1
• B. grep 10.1.1.1 | cat /var/messages
• C. grep /var/messages | cat 10.1.1.1
• D. cat 10.1.1.1 | grep /var/messages

Answer: A

Explanation:
the cat command reads the file and streams its content to standard output. The | symbol connects the output of the left command with the input of the right command. The grep command returns all lines that match the regex. The cut command splits each line into fields based on a delimiter and extracts a specific field.

NEW QUESTION 8

After segmenting the network, the network manager wants to control the traffic between the segments. Which of the following should the manager use to control the network traffic?

• A. A DMZ
• B. A VPN a
• C. A VLAN
• D. An ACL

Answer: D

Explanation:
After segmenting the network, a network manager can use an access control list (ACL) to control the traffic between the segments. An ACL is a set of rules that permit or deny traffic based on its characteristics, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

NEW QUESTION 9

An employee used a corporate mobile device during a vacation Multiple contacts were modified in the device vacation Which of the following method did attacker to insert the contacts without having 'Physical access to device?

• A. Jamming
• B. BluJacking
• C. Disassoaatm
• D. Evil twin

Answer: B

Explanation:
bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers. Bluejacking does not involve device hijacking, despite what the
name implies. In this context, a human might say that the best answer to the question is B. BluJacking, because it is a method that can insert contacts without having physical access to the device.

NEW QUESTION 10

An information security officer at a credit card transaction company is conducting a framework-mapping exercise with the internal controls. The company recently established a new office in Europe. To which of the following frameworks should the security officer map the existing controls' (Select two).

• A. ISO
• B. PCI DSS
• C. SOC
• D. GDPR
• E. CSA
• F. NIST

Answer: BD

Explanation:
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards and requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit payment card data. It aims to protect cardholder data and prevent fraud and data breaches. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a regulation that governs the collection, processing, and transfer of personal data of individuals in the European Union. It aims to protect the privacy and rights of data subjects and impose obligations and penalties on data controllers and
processors. These are the frameworks that the security officer should map the existing controls to, as they are relevant for a credit card transaction company that has a new office in Europe

NEW QUESTION 11

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating (he dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system tor the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls mat apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate Hie environment for this new ERP system?

• A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
• B. CIS Critical Security Controls
• C. NIST Risk Management Framevtoik
• D. ISO 27002

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following BEST describes a social-engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested?

• A. Whaling
• B. Spam
• C. Invoice scam
• D. Pharming

Answer: A

Explanation:
A social engineering attack that relies on an executive at a small business visiting a fake banking website where credit card and account details are harvested is known as whaling. Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts.

NEW QUESTION 13

Audit logs indicate an administrative account that belongs to a security engineer has been locked out multiple times during the day. The security engineer has been on vacation (or a few days. Which of the following attacks can the account lockout be attributed to?

• A. Backdoor
• B. Brute-force
• C. Rootkit
• D. Trojan

Answer: B

Explanation:
The account lockout can be attributed to a brute-force attack. A brute-force attack is a type of attack where an attacker attempts to guess a user's password by continually trying different combinations of characters. In this case, it is likely that the security engineer's account was locked out due to an attacker attempting to guess their password. Backdoor, rootkit, and Trojan attacks are not relevant in this scenario.

NEW QUESTION 14

A company policy requires third-party suppliers to self-report data breaches within a specific time frame. Which of the following third-party risk management policies is the company complying with?

• A. MOU
• B. SLA
• C. EOL
• D. NDA

Answer: B

Explanation:
An SLA or service level agreement is a type of third-party risk management policy that defines the
expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer. An SLA typically includes metrics and standards for measuring the quality and performance of the service, as well as penalties or remedies for non-compliance. An SLA can also specify the reporting requirements for data breaches or other incidents that may affect the customer’s security or privacy.

NEW QUESTION 15

A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times After determining it is not a routing or DNS issue the administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and receives the following output:
CPU 0 percent busy, from 300 sec ago 1 sec ave: 99 percent busy
5 sec ave: 97 percent busy
1 min ave: 83 percent busy
Which of the following is The router experiencing?

• A. DDoS attack
• B. Memory leak
• C. Buffer overflow
• D. Resource exhaustion

Answer: D

Explanation:
The router is experiencing a resource exhaustion issue. The output from the command indicates that the CPU is consistently busy, with a 1-second average of 99 percent busy and a 1-minute average of 83 percent busy.
This indicates that the router is struggling to keep up with the demands placed on it, potentially due to a high volume of traffic or other factors. As a result, web pages are experiencing long load times. This is an example of resource exhaustion, where the router's resources are being overwhelmed and are unable to meet the demands placed on them. A DDoS attack, memory leak, or buffer overflow would not typically cause the symptoms described in the scenario.

NEW QUESTION 16
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