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Which of the following would be BEST for a technician to review to determine the total risk an organization can bear when assessing a "cloud-first" adoption strategy?

  • A. Risk matrix
  • B. Risk tolerance
  • C. Risk register
  • D. Risk appetite

Answer: B

To determine the total risk an organization can bear, a technician should review the organization's risk tolerance, which is the amount of risk the organization is willing to accept. This information will help determine the organization's "cloud-first" adoption strategy. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)


A user's laptop constantly disconnects from the Wi-Fi network. Once the laptop reconnects, the user can reach the internet but cannot access shared folders or other network resources. Which of the following types of attacks is the user MOST likely experiencing?

  • A. Bluejacking
  • B. Jamming
  • C. Rogue access point
  • D. Evil twin

Answer: D

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi network that looks like a legitimate network, but is designed to capture user data that is sent over the network. In this case, the user's laptop is constantly disconnecting and reconnecting to the Wi-Fi network, indicating that it is connecting to the fake network instead of the legitimate one. Once the user connects to the fake network, they are unable to access shared folders or other network resources, as those are only available on the legitimate network.


Multiple beaconing activities to a malicious domain have been observed. The malicious domain is hosting malware from various endpoints on the network. Which of the following technologies would be best to correlate the activities between the different endpoints?

  • A. Firewall
  • B. SIEM
  • C. IPS
  • D. Protocol analyzer

Answer: B

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a technology that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from multiple sources, such as firewall logs, IDS/IPS alerts, network devices, applications, and endpoints. SIEM provides real-time monitoring and alerting of security events, as well as historical analysis and reporting for compliance and forensic purposes.
A SIEM technology would be best to correlate the activities between the different endpoints that are beaconing to a malicious domain. A SIEM can detect the malicious domain by comparing it with threat intelligence feeds or known indicators of compromise (IOCs). A SIEM can also identify the endpoints that are communicating with the malicious domain by analyzing the firewall logs and other network traffic data. A SIEM can alert the security team of the potential compromise and provide them with relevant information for investigation and remediation.


A security analyst is taking part in an evaluation process that analyzes and categorizes threat actors Of real-world events in order to improve the incident response team's process. Which Of the following is the analyst most likely participating in?

  • B. Walk-through
  • C. Red team
  • D. Purple team-I
  • E. TAXI

Answer: A

MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base and framework that analyzes and categorizes threat actors and
real-world events based on their tactics, techniques and procedures. It can help improve the incident response team’s process by providing a common language and reference for identifying, understanding and mitigating threats


Which of the following are common VoIP-associated vulnerabilities? (Select two).

  • A. SPIM
  • B. Vishing
  • C. VLAN hopping
  • D. Phishing
  • E. DHCP snooping
  • F. Tailgating

Answer: AB

SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems.


Which of the following cryptographic concepts would a security engineer utilize while implementing non-repudiation? (Select TWO)

  • A. Block cipher
  • B. Hashing
  • C. Private key
  • D. Perfect forward secrecy
  • E. Salting
  • F. Symmetric keys

Answer: BC

Non-repudiation is the ability to ensure that a party cannot deny a previous action or event. Cryptographic concepts that can be used to implement non-repudiation include hashing and digital signatures, which use a private key to sign a message and ensure that the signature is unique to the signer. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)


A web architect would like to move a company's website presence to the cloud. One of the management team's key concerns is resiliency in case a cloud provider's data center or network connection goes down. Which of the following should the web architect consider to address this concern?

  • A. Containers
  • B. Virtual private cloud
  • C. Segmentation
  • D. Availability zones

Answer: D

Availability zones are the most appropriate cloud feature to address the concern of resiliency in case a cloud provider’s data center or network connection goes down. Availability zones are physically separate locations within an Azure region that have independent power, cooling, and networking. Each availability zone is made up of one or more data centers and houses infrastructure to support highly available, mission-critical applications. Availability zones are connected with high-speed, private fiber-optic networks. Azure services that support availability zones fall into two categories: Zonal services – you pin the resource to a specific zone (for example, virtual machines, managed disks, IP addresses), or Zone-redundant services – platform replicates automatically across zones (for example, zone-redundant storage, SQL Database). To achieve comprehensive business continuity on Azure, build your application architecture using the combination of availability zones with Azure region pairs. You can synchronously replicate your applications and data using availability zones within an Azure region for high-availability and asynchronously replicate across Azure regions for disaster recovery protection.


A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One o( the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability lo use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

  • A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts.
  • B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file.
  • C. Remote login was disabled in the networkd.conf instead of using the ssh
  • D. conf.
  • E. Network services are no longer running on the NAS

Answer: B

SSH is used to securely transfer files to the remote server and is required for SCP to work. Disabling SSH will prevent users from being able to use SCP to transfer files to the server. To enable SSH, the security engineer should modify the SSH configuration file (sshd.conf) and make sure that SSH is enabled. For more information on hardening systems and the security techniques that can be used, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.


An organization recently completed a security control assessment The organization determined some controls did not meet the existing security measures. Additional mitigations are needed to lessen the risk of the non-complaint controls. Which of the following best describes these mitigations?

  • A. Corrective
  • B. Compensating
  • C. Deterrent
  • D. Technical

Answer: B

Compensating controls are additional security measures that are implemented to reduce the risk of
non-compliant controls. They do not fix the underlying issue, but they provide an alternative way of achieving the same security objective. For example, if a system does not have encryption, a compensating control could be to restrict access to the system or use a secure network connection.


An analyst is working on an email security incident in which the target opened an attachment containing a worm. The analyst wants to Implement mitigation techniques to prevent further spread. Which of the
following is the best course of action for the analyst to take?

  • A. Apply a DLP solution.
  • B. Implement network segmentation.
  • C. Utilize email content filtering.
  • D. Isolate the infected attachment.

Answer: D

Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.security.org/antivirus/computer-worm/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://sec.cloudapps.cisco.com/security/center/resources/worm_mitigation_whitepaper.html


Which of the following best describes a tool used by an organization to identi-fy, log, and track any potential risks and corresponding risk information?

  • A. Quantitative risk assessment
  • B. Risk register
  • C. Risk control assessment
  • D. Risk matrix

Answer: B

A risk register is a tool used by an organization to identify, log, and track any potential risks and corresponding risk information. It helps to document the risks, their likelihood, impact, mitigation strategies, and status. A risk register is an essential part of risk management and can be used for projects or organizations.


Which of the following threat actors is most likely to be motivated by ideology?

  • A. Business competitor
  • B. Hacktivist
  • C. Criminal syndicate
  • D. Script kiddie
  • E. Disgruntled employee

Answer: B

A hacktivist is a threat actor who is most likely to be motivated by ideology. A hacktivist is a person or group who uses hacking skills and techniques to promote a political or social cause. Hacktivists may target government, corporate, or religious entities that they disagree with or oppose. Hacktivists may use various methods to achieve their goals, such as defacing websites, leaking sensitive data, launching denial-of-service attacks, or spreading propaganda. Hacktivists are not motivated by financial gain or personal benefit, but rather by their beliefs and values. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.uscybersecurity.net/hacktivist/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/what-is-hacktivism


A network engineer and a security engineer are discussing ways to monitor network operations. Which of the following is the BEST method?

  • A. Disable Telnet and force SSH.
  • B. Establish a continuous ping.
  • C. Utilize an agentless monitor
  • D. Enable SNMPv3 With passwords.

Answer: C

An agentless monitor is the best method to monitor network operations because it does not require any software or agents to be installed on the devices being monitored, making it less intrusive and less likely to disrupt network operations. This method can monitor various aspects of network operations, such as traffic, performance, and security.
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), Chapter 4: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Monitoring and Detection Techniques, pg. 167-170.


A security architect is implementing a new email architecture for a company. Due to security concerns, the Chief Information Security Officer would like the new architecture to support email encryption, as well as provide for digital signatures. Which of the following should the architect implement?

  • A. TOP
  • B. IMAP
  • C. HTTPS
  • D. S/MIME

Answer: D

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is a protocol that enables secure email messages to be sent and received. It provides email encryption, as well as digital signatures, which can be used to verify the authenticity of the sender. S/MIME can be used with a variety of email protocols, including POP and IMAP.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-smime
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), page 139


A company is moving its retail website to a public cloud provider. The company wants to tokenize audit card data but not allow the cloud provider to see the stored credit card information. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?

  • A. WAF
  • B. CASB
  • C. VPN
  • D. TLS

Answer: B

CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers. CASB can help protect data stored in cloud services by enforcing security policies and controls such as encryption, tokenization, authentication, authorization, logging, auditing, and threat detection. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes called tokens that have no intrinsic value. Tokenization can help prevent data leakage by ensuring that only authorized users can access the original data using a tokenization system.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what


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