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Online SY0-701 free questions and answers of New Version:
NEW QUESTION 1
A network administrator needs to determine Ihe sequence of a server farm's logs. Which of the following should the administrator consider? (Select TWO).
- A. Chain of custody
- B. Tags
- C. Reports
- D. Time stamps
- E. Hash values
- F. Time offset
Answer: DF
Explanation:
A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.
To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:
Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings. Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such
as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs
NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following is the MOST secure but LEAST expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives?
- A. Pulverizing
- B. Shredding
- C. Incinerating
- D. Degaussing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shredding may be the most secure and cost-effective way to destroy electronic data in any media that contain hard drives or solid-state drives and have reached their end-of-life1. Shredding reduces electronic devices to pieces no larger than 2 millimeters2. Therefore, shredding is the most secure but least expensive data destruction method for data that is stored on hard drives.
NEW QUESTION 3
Users report access to an application from an internal workstation is still unavailable to a specific server, even after a recent firewall rule implementation that was requested for this access. ICMP traffic is successful between the two devices. Which of the following tools should the security analyst use to help identify if the traffic is being blocked?
- A. nmap
- B. tracert
- C. ping
- D. ssh
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tracert is a command-line tool that shows the route that packets take to reach a destination on a network1. It also displays the time it takes for each hop along the way1. By using tracert, you can see if there is a router or firewall that is blocking or slowing down the traffic between the internal workstation and the specific server1.
NEW QUESTION 4
A software company is analyzing a process that detects software vulnerabilities at the earliest stage possible. The goal is to scan the source looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. Which of the following would BEST assist the company with this objective?
- A. Use fuzzing testing
- B. Use a web vulnerability scanner
- C. Use static code analysis
- D. Use a penetration-testing OS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Using static code analysis would be the best approach to scan the source code looking for unsecure practices and weaknesses before the application is deployed in a runtime environment. This method involves analyzing the source code without actually running the software, which can identify security vulnerabilities that may not be detected by other testing methods. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, pp. 292-295
NEW QUESTION 5
Per company security policy, IT staff members are required to have separate credentials to perform administrative functions using just-in-time permissions. Which of the following solutions is the company Implementing?
- A. Privileged access management
- B. SSO
- C. RADIUS
- D. Attribute-based access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.
NEW QUESTION 6
A security administrator needs to add fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Which of the following is the best choice to achieve this objective?
- A. Multipathing
- B. RAID
- C. Segmentation
- D. 8021.1
Answer: A
Explanation:
to achieve the objective of adding fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage is multipathin1g. Multipathing is a technique that allows a system to use more than one path to access a storage device1. This can improve performance by distributing the workload across multiple paths, and also provide fault tolerance by switching to an alternative path if one path fails1. Multipathing can be implemented using software or hardware solutions1.
NEW QUESTION 7
An engineer wants to inspect traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment Which of the following solutions should the engineer implement? (Select two).
- A. CASB
- B. WAF
- C. Load balancer
- D. VPN
- E. TLS
- F. DAST
Answer: BC
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a solution that inspects traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment and protects them from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service1. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a virtual appliance in front of the web servers. A load balancer is a solution that distributes traffic among multiple web servers in a cloud environment and improves their performance, availability, and scalability2. A load balancer can also perform health checks on the web servers and route traffic only to the healthy ones. The other options are not relevant to this scenario. A CASB is a cloud access security broker, which is a solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud services by an organization’s users3. A VPN is a virtual private network, which is a solution that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two networks or devices over the internet. TLS is Transport Layer Security, which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. DAST is dynamic application security testing, which is a method of testing web applications for vulnerabilities by simulating attacks on them.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/what-is-a-web-application-firewall-waf/ 2:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/load-balancing/ 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/cloud-access-security-broker-casb/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/vpn-virtual-private-network/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/transport-layer-security-tls/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dynamic-application-security-testing-dast/ : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cloud-adoption-framework/ready/azure-best-practices/plan-for-traffic-ins
: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/inspect-traffic-with-azure-firewall :
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/gateway/application-gateway-before-azur
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following isa risk that is specifically associated with hesting applications iin the public cloud?
- A. Unsecured root accounts
- B. Zero day
- C. Shared tenancy
- D. Insider threat
Answer: C
Explanation:
When hosting applications in the public cloud, there is a risk of shared tenancy, meaning that multiple organizations are sharing the same infrastructure. This can potentially allow one tenant to access another tenant's data, creating a security risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following will increase cryptographic security?
- A. High data entropy
- B. Algorithms that require less computing power
- C. Longer key longevity
- D. Hashing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data entropy is a measure of the randomness or unpredictability of data. High data entropy means that the data has more variation and less repetition, making it harder to guess or crack. It can increase cryptographic security by making the encryption keys and ciphertext more complex and resistant to brute-force attacks, frequency analysis, etc
NEW QUESTION 10
A security analyst must enforce policies to harden an MDM infrastructure. The requirements are as follows:
* Ensure mobile devices can be tracked and wiped.
* Confirm mobile devices are encrypted.
Which of the following should the analyst enable on all the devices to meet these requirements?
- A. A Geofencing
- B. Biometric authentication
- C. Geolocation
- D. Geotagging
Answer: A
Explanation:
Geofencing is a technology used in mobile device management (MDM) to allow administrators to define geographical boundaries within which mobile devices can operate. This can be used to enforce location-based policies, such as ensuring that devices can be tracked and wiped if lost or stolen. Additionally, encryption can be enforced on the devices to ensure the protection of sensitive data in the event of theft or loss. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following environments utilizes dummy data and is MOST likely to be installed locally on a system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build?
- A. Production
- B. Test
- C. Staging
- D. Development
Answer: D
Explanation:
A development environment is the environment that is used to develop and test software. It is typically installed locally on a system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build. In this environment, dummy data is often utilized to test the software's functionality.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design
NEW QUESTION 12
Security engineers are working on digital certificate management with the top priority of making administration easier. Which of the following certificates is the best option?
- A. User
- B. Wildcard
- C. Self-signed
- D. Root
Answer: B
Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a type of digital certificate that can be used to secure multiple subdomains under a single domain name. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.example.com can be used to secure www.example.com, mail.example.com, blog.example.com, etc. A wildcard certificate can make administration easier by reducing the number of certificates that need to be issued, managed, and renewed. It can also save costs and simplify configuration.
NEW QUESTION 13
A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each firewall to do the following:
* 1. Deny cleartext web traffic
* 2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
* 3. Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.
Hat any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please dick the Reset All button.
Solution:
In Firewall 1, HTTP inbound Action should be DENY. As shown below
In Firewall 2, Management Service should be DNS, As shown below.
In Firewall 3, HTTP Inbound Action should be DENY, as shown below
Does this meet the goal?
- A. Yes
- B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 14
A security analyst is creating baselines for the server team to follow when hardening new devices for deployment. Which of the following best describes what the analyst is creating?
- A. Change management procedure
- B. Information security policy
- C. Cybersecurity framework
- D. Secure configuration guide
Answer: D
Explanation:
A secure configuration guide is a document that provides an overview of the security features and best practices for a specific product, system, or application. A secure configuration guide helps to reduce unnecessary cyber vulnerabilities and enhance overall security by applying consistent and standardized
settings and policies. A security analyst can create baselines for the server team to follow when hardening new devices for deployment based on a secure configuration guide.
* A. Change management procedure. This is not the correct answer, because a change management procedure is a document that describes the steps and processes for implementing, reviewing, and approving changes to an IT system or environment. A change management procedure helps to minimize the risks and impacts of changes on the system performance, availability, and security.
* B. Information security policy. This is not the correct answer, because an information security policy is a document that defines the rules and principles for protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets within an organization. An information security policy helps to establish the roles and responsibilities of employees, managers, and stakeholders regarding information security.
* C. Cybersecurity framework. This is not the correct answer, because a cybersecurity framework is a document that provides a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks and improving resilience. A cybersecurity framework helps to align the business objectives and priorities with the security requirements and capabilities.
* D. Secure configuration guide. This is the correct answer, because a secure configuration guide is a document that provides an overview of the security features and best practices for a specific product, system, or application. A secure configuration guide helps to reduce unnecessary cyber vulnerabilities and enhance overall security by applying consistent and standardized settings and policies.
Reference: Secure Configuration Guide, Security Technical Implementation Guide - Wikipedia.
NEW QUESTION 15
A penetration tester was able to compromise a host using previously captured network traffic. Which of the
following is the result of this action?
- A. Integer overflow
- B. Race condition
- C. Memory leak
- D. Replay attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
A replay attack is a form of network attack in which valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed12. This can allow an attacker to compromise a host by resending a previously captured message, such as a password or a session token, that looks legitimate to the receiver1. A replay attack can be prevented by using methods such as random session keys, timestamps, or one-time passwords that expire after use12. A replay attack is different from an integer overflow, which is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an arithmetic operation attempts to create a numeric value that is too large to be represented within the available storage space3. A race condition is another type of software vulnerability that occurs when multiple processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently, and the outcome depends on the order of execution3. A memory leak is a type of software defect that occurs when a program fails to release memory that is no longer needed, causing the program to consume more memory than necessary and potentially affecting the performance or stability of the system3.
NEW QUESTION 16
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