The Secret Of CompTIA SY0-701 Training Tools

Master the SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam content and be ready for exam day success quickly with this Pass4sure SY0-701 free exam questions. We guarantee it!We make it a reality and give you real SY0-701 questions in our CompTIA SY0-701 braindumps.Latest 100% VALID CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Questions Dumps at below page. You can use our CompTIA SY0-701 braindumps and pass your exam.

Also have SY0-701 free dumps questions for you:

NEW QUESTION 1

During an investigation, the incident response team discovers that multiple administrator accounts were suspected of being compromised. The host audit logs indicate a repeated brute-force attack on a single administrator account followed by suspicious logins from unfamiliar geographic locations. Which of the following data sources would be BEST to use to assess the accounts impacted by this attack?

  • A. User behavior analytics
  • B. Dump files
  • C. Bandwidth monitors
  • D. Protocol analyzer output

Answer: A

Explanation:
User behavior analytics (UBA) would be the best data source to assess the accounts impacted by the attack, as it can identify abnormal activity, such as repeated brute-force attacks and logins from unfamiliar geographic locations, and provide insights into the behavior of the impacted accounts. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7: Incident Response, pp. 338-341

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following environments typically hosts the current version configurations and code, compares user-story responses and workflow, and uses a modified version of actual data for testing?

  • A. Development
  • B. Staging
  • C. Production
  • D. Test

Answer: B

Explanation:
Staging is an environment in the software development lifecycle that is used to test a modified version of the actual data, current version configurations, and code. This environment compares user-story responses and workflow before the software is released to the production environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, pg. 496

NEW QUESTION 3

An organization wants to quickly assess how effectively the IT team hardened new laptops Which of the following would be the best solution to perform this assessment?

  • A. Install a SIEM tool and properly configure it to read the OS configuration files.
  • B. Load current baselines into the existing vulnerability scanner.
  • C. Maintain a risk register with each security control marked as compliant or non-compliant.
  • D. Manually review the secure configuration guide checklists.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan devices and systems for known vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and compliance issues. By loading the current baselines into the scanner, the organization can compare the actual state of the new laptops with the desired state and identify any deviations or weaknesses. This is a quick and automated way to assess the hardening of the new laptops.

NEW QUESTION 4

A manager for the development team is concerned about reports showing a common set of vulnerabilities. The set of vulnerabilities is present on almost all of the applications developed by the team. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for the manager to use to address this issue?

  • A. Tune the accuracy of fuzz testing.
  • B. Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines.
  • C. Increase the frequency of dynamic code scans 1o detect issues faster.
  • D. Implement code signing to make code immutable.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of
vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9,
Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0:
Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

NEW QUESTION 5

A security analyst needs an overview of vulnerabilities for a host on the network. Which of the following is the BEST type of scan for the analyst to run to discover which vulnerable services are running?

  • A. Non-credentialed
  • B. Web application
  • C. Privileged
  • D. Internal

Answer: C

Explanation:
Privileged scanning, also known as credentialed scanning, is a type of vulnerability scanning that uses a valid user account to log in to the target host and examine vulnerabilities from a trusted user’s perspective. It can provide more accurate and comprehensive results than unprivileged scanning, which does not use any credentials and only scans for externally visible vulnerabilities.

NEW QUESTION 6

A security architect at a large, multinational organization is concerned about the complexities and overhead of managing multiple encryption keys securely in a multicioud provider environment. The security architect is looking for a solution with reduced latency to allow the incorporation of the organization's existing keys and to maintain consistent, centralized control and management regardless of the data location. Which of the following would best meet the architect's objectives?

  • A. Trusted Platform Module
  • B. laaS
  • C. HSMaas
  • D. PaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption. HSMaas allows the organization to use its own keys or generate new ones, and to control and manage them centrally regardless of where the data is stored or processed. HSMaas also reduces the latency and complexity of managing multiple encryption keys across different cloud providers, as well as the cost and maintenance of deploying physical HSM devices.
* A. Trusted Platform Module. This is not the correct answer, because a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a device, such as a laptop or a server. A TPM does not offer a cloud-based solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.
* B. laaS. This is not the correct answer, because laaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, over the internet. laaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.
* C. HSMaas. This is the correct answer, because HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption across multiple cloud providers.
* D. PaaS. This is not the correct answer, because PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing and deploying applications over the internet. PaaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.
Reference: HSM as a Service (HSMaaS) | Encryption Consulting, What Is Hardware Security Module (HSM
| Thales.

NEW QUESTION 7

An attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that goes unnoticed Upon reviewing the document's contents the author notices some additional verbiage that was not originally in the document but cannot validate an integrity issue. Which of the following attacks was used?

  • A. Cryptomalware
  • B. Hash substitution
  • C. Collision
  • D. Phishing

Answer: B

Explanation:
This type of attack occurs when an attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that has a different hash value. The author would be able to notice the additional verbiage, however, since the hash value would have changed, they would not be able to validate an integrity issue.

NEW QUESTION 8

A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?

  • A. Content filter
  • B. SIEM
  • C. Firewall rules
  • D. DLP

Answer: C

Explanation:
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, Chapter 5: "Network Security".

NEW QUESTION 9

A business is looking for a cloud service provider that offers a la carte services, including cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking. Which of the following cloud service provider types should business engage?

  • A. A laaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. XaaS
  • D. SaaS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) providers offer a la carte services, including cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking. With IaaS, businesses can rent infrastructure components such as virtual machines, storage, and networking from a cloud service provider. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 233-234

NEW QUESTION 10

An organization has been experiencing outages during holiday sales and needs to ensure availability of its point-of-sales systems. The IT administrator has been asked to improve both server-data fault tolerance and site availability under high consumer load. Which of the following are the best options to accomplish this objective? (Select two.)

  • A. Load balancing
  • B. Incremental backups
  • C. UPS
  • D. RAID
  • E. Dual power supply
  • F. VLAN

Answer: AD

Explanation:
Load balancing and RAID are the best options to accomplish the objective of improving both server-data fault tolerance and site availability under high consumer load. Load balancing is a method of distributing network traffic across multiple servers to optimize performance, reliability, and scalability. Load balancing can help improve site availability by preventing server overload, ensuring high uptime, and providing redundancy and failover. RAID stands for redundant array of independent disks, which is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit to improve data storage performance, reliability, and capacity. RAID can help improve server-data fault tolerance by providing data redundancy, backup, and recovery.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.nginx.com/resources/glossary/load-balancing/ https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/raid

NEW QUESTION 11

An incident has occurred in the production environment.
Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit


Solution:
Command Output1 = Logic Bomb
A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that executes when certain conditions are met, such as a specific date or time, or a specific user action1. In this case, the logic bomb is a script that runs every minute and checks if there is a user named john in the /etc/password file. If there is, it drops the production database using a MySQL command3. This could cause severe damage to the system and the data.
To prevent logic bombs, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also perform regular backups of your data. You should also avoid opening suspicious attachments or links from unknown sources, and use strong passwords for your accounts1.
Command Output2 = backdoorA backdoor is a type of malicious code that allows an attacker to access a system or network remotely, bypassing security measures1. In this case, the backdoor is a script that runs every time the date command is executed and prompts the user to enter their full name. Then, it opens a reverse shell connection using the nc command and downloads a virus file from a malicious website using the wget command2. This could allow the attacker to execute commands on the system and infect it with malware.
To prevent backdoors, you should use antivirus software that can detect and remove malicious code, and also update your system and applications regularly. You should also avoid executing unknown commands or scripts from untrusted sources, and use firewall rules to block unauthorized connections

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following incident response phases should the proper collection of the detected 'ocs and establishment of a chain of custody be performed before?

  • A. Containment
  • B. Identification
  • C. Preparation
  • D. Recovery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Containment is the phase where the incident response team tries to isolate and stop the spread of the incident12. Before containing the incident, the team should collect and preserve any evidence that may be useful for analysis and investigation12. This includes documenting the incident details, such as date, time, location, source, and impact12. It also includes establishing a chain of custody, which is a record of who handled the evidence, when, where, how, and why3. A chain of custody ensures the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in court or other legal proceedings3.

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following measures the average time that equipment will operate before it breaks?

  • A. SLE
  • B. MTBF
  • C. RTO
  • D. ARO

Answer: C

Explanation:
the measure that calculates the average time that equipment will operate before it breaks is MTB1F2. MTBF stands for Mean Time Between Failures and it is a metric that represents the average time between two failures occurring in a given period12. MTBF is used to measure the reliability and availability of a product or system12. The higher the MTBF, the more reliable and available the product or system 1is2.

NEW QUESTION 14

An organization is concerned about hackers potentially entering a facility and plugging in a remotely accessible Kali Linux box. Which of the following should be the first lines of defense against such an attack? (Select TWO)

  • A. MAC filtering
  • B. Zero trust segmentation
  • C. Network access control
  • D. Access control vestibules
  • E. Guards
  • F. Bollards

Answer: CE

Explanation:
Network access control (NAC) is a technique that restricts access to a network based on the identity, role, device, location, or other criteria of the users or devices. NAC can prevent unauthorized or malicious devices from connecting to a network and accessing sensitive data or resources.
Guards are physical security personnel who monitor and control access to a facility. Guards can prevent unauthorized or malicious individuals from entering a facility and plugging in a remotely accessible device.

NEW QUESTION 15

A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?

  • A. Race condition testing
  • B. Proper error handling
  • C. Forward web server logs to a SIEM
  • D. Input sanitization

Answer: D

Explanation:
Input sanitization can help prevent attackers from learning the service account name by removing potentially harmful characters from user input, reducing the likelihood of successful injection attacks. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 2.2: Given a scenario, implement secure coding techniques.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 72-73

NEW QUESTION 16
......

P.S. Easily pass SY0-701 Exam with 0 Q&As Downloadfreepdf.net Dumps & pdf Version, Welcome to Download the Newest Downloadfreepdf.net SY0-701 Dumps: https://www.downloadfreepdf.net/SY0-701-pdf-download.html (0 New Questions)