A Review Of Printable SY0-701 Training Materials

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A company is developing a new initiative to reduce insider threats. Which of the following should the company focus on to make the greatest impact?

  • A. Social media analysis
  • B. Least privilege
  • C. Nondisclosure agreements
  • D. Mandatory vacation

Answer: B

Least privilege is a security principle that states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access and permissions required to perform their tasks. This reduces the risk of insider threats by limiting the potential damage that a malicious or compromised user or process can cause to the system or data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-least-privilege


A desktop support technician recently installed a new document-scanning software program on a computer. However, when the end user tried to launch the program, it did not respond. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

  • A. A new firewall rule is needed to access the application.
  • B. The system was quarantined for missing software updates.
  • C. The software was not added to the application whitelist.
  • D. The system was isolated from the network due to infected software

Answer: C

The most likely cause of the document-scanning software program not responding when launched by the end user is that the software was not added to the application whitelist. An application whitelist is a list of approved software applications that are allowed to run on a system. If the software is not on the whitelist, it may be blocked from running by the system's security policies. Adding the software to the whitelist should resolve the issue and allow the program to run. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31541/application-whitelisting


A security analyst is investigating multiple hosts that are communicating to external IP addresses during the hours of 2:00 a.m - 4:00 am. The malware has evaded detection by traditional antivirus software. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely infecting the hosts?

  • A. A RAT
  • B. Ransomware
  • C. Polymophic
  • D. A worm

Answer: A

Based on the given information, the most likely type of malware infecting the hosts is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan). RATs are often used for stealthy unauthorized access to a victim's computer, and they can evade traditional antivirus software through various sophisticated techniques. In particular, the fact that the malware is communicating with external IP addresses during specific hours suggests that it may be under the control of an attacker who is issuing commands from a remote location. Ransomware, polymorphic malware, and worms are also possible culprits, but the context of the question suggests that a RAT is the most likely answer.


A security administrator is seeking a solution to prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. Which of the following security solutions should the administrator choose?

  • A. MAC filtering
  • B. Anti-malware
  • C. Translation gateway
  • D. VPN

Answer: D

A VPN (virtual private network) is a secure tunnel used to encrypt traffic and prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. It is a secure way to extend a private network across public networks, such as the Internet, and can be used to allow remote users to securely access resources on the internal network. Additionally, a VPN can be used to prevent malicious traffic from entering the internal network.


A security analyst received the following requirements for the deployment of a security camera solution:
* The cameras must be viewable by the on-site security guards.
+ The cameras must be able to communicate with the video storage server.
* The cameras must have the time synchronized automatically.
* The cameras must not be reachable directly via the internet.
* The servers for the cameras and video storage must be available for remote maintenance via the company VPN.
Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to securely meet the remote connectivity requirements?

  • A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on
  • B. Deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network that can communicate with the servers
  • C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering
  • D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server

Answer: B

A jump server is a system that is used to manage and access systems in a separate security zone. It acts as a bridge between two different security zones and provides a controlled and secure way of accessing systems between them12. A jump server can also be used for auditing traffic and user activity for real-time surveillance 3. By deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network, the security analyst can securely meet the remote connectivity requirements for the servers and cameras without exposing them directly to the internet or allowing outgoing traffic from their subnet. The other options are not suitable because:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on would not allow remote maintenance via the company VPN.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering would not prevent direct internet access to the cameras or servers.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server would not address the remote connectivity requirements or protect the servers from internet access.
1: https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/network-security/what-is-a-jump-server/ 3:
https://www.ssh.com/academy/iam/jump-server 2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server


A company is focused on reducing risks from removable media threats. Due to certain primary applications, removable media cannot be entirely prohibited at this time. Which of the following best describes the company's approach?

  • A. Compensating controls
  • B. Directive control
  • C. Mitigating controls
  • D. Physical security controls

Answer: C

Mitigating controls are designed to reduce the impact or severity of an event that has occurred or is likely to occur. They do not prevent or detect the event, but rather limit the damage or consequences of it. For example, a backup system is a mitigating control that can help restore data after a loss or corruption.
In this case, the company is focused on reducing risks from removable media threats, which are threats that can compromise data security, introduce malware infections, or cause media failure123. Removable media threats can be used to bypass network defenses and target industrial/OT environments2. The company cannot prohibit removable media entirely because of certain primary applications that require them, so it implements mitigating controls to lessen the potential harm from these threats.
Some examples of mitigating controls for removable media threats are:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Encrypting data on removable media
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Scanning removable media for malware before use
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Restricting access to removable media ports
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Implementing policies and procedures for removable media usage and disposal
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Educating users on the risks and best practices of removable media


Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training 10 ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?

  • A. Encrypted
  • B. Intellectual property
  • C. Critical
  • D. Data in transit

Answer: B

Intellectual property is a type of data that is proprietary and unique to an organization. It includes trade secrets and other information that the organization does not want to share with third parties or competitors. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products, services, or processes for the organization. Intellectual property data requires a high level of security and protection, as it can provide a competitive advantage or disadvantage if leaked or stolen.
Encrypted data is not a type of data, but a state of data. Encryption is a method of transforming data into an unreadable format using a key, so that only authorized parties can access it. Encryption can be applied to any type of data, such as intellectual property, critical data, or data in transit.
Critical data is a type of data that is essential for the operation and continuity of an organization. It includes information such as customer records, financial transactions, employee details, and so on. Critical data may or may not be intellectual property, depending on the nature and source of the data. Critical data also requires a high level of security and protection, as it can affect the reputation, performance, or legal compliance of the organization.
Data in transit is not a type of data, but a state of data. Data in transit refers to data that is moving from one location to another over a network, such as the internet, a LAN, or a WAN. Data in transit can be vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. Data in transit can also be any type of data, such as intellectual property, critical data, or PII.


An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

  • A. Reimage the impacted workstations.
  • B. Activate runbooks for incident response.
  • C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,
  • D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.


To reduce and limit software and infrastructure costs the Chief Information Officer has requested to move email services to the cloud. The cloud provider and the organization must have secunty controls to protect sensitive data Which of the following cloud services would best accommodate the request?

  • A. laaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. DaaS
  • D. SaaS

Answer: D

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with applications and software that are hosted and managed by a cloud provider over the internet. It can move email services to the cloud by allowing clients to access and use email applications without installing or maintaining them on their own devices or servers


A network architect wants a server to have the ability to retain network availability even if one of the network switches it is connected to goes down. Which of the following should the architect implement on the server to achieve this goal?

  • A. RAID
  • B. UPS
  • C. NIC teaming
  • D. Load balancing

Answer: C

NIC Teaming is a feature that allows a server to be connected to multiple network switches, providing redundancy and increased network availability. If one of the switches goes down, the server will still be able to send and receive data through one of the other switches. To configure NIC Teaming in Windows Server, see Microsoft's documentation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming. For more information on NIC Teaming and other network redundancy features, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.


Which of the following supplies non-repudiation during a forensics investigation?

  • A. Dumping volatile memory contents first
  • B. Duplicating a drive with dd
  • C. Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image
  • D. Logging everyone in contact with evidence
  • E. Encrypting sensitive data

Answer: C

Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image is a way to supply non-repudiation during a forensics investigation, as it can verify the integrity and authenticity of the data captured in the image. SHA-2 is a family of secure hash algorithms that can produce a unique and fixed-length digest of any input data. By hashing the drive image and comparing the signature with the original hash, the investigator can prove that the image has not been altered or tampered with since the time of acquisition. This can also help to identify the source of the data and prevent any denial from the suspect. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-security-incident-response-digital-forensics-supporting-investig


A security professional wants to enhance the protection of a critical environment that is Used to store and manage a company's encryption keys. The selected technology should be tamper resistant. Which of the following should the security professional implement to achieve the goal?

  • A. DLP
  • B. HSM
  • C. CA
  • D. FIM

Answer: B

HSM stands for hardware security module, which is a physical device that is used to store and manage cryptographic keys in a secure and tamper-resistant manner. HSMs can provide high-performance encryption and decryption operations, as well as key generation, backup, and recovery. HSMs can also prevent unauthorized access or extraction of the keys, even by the cloud service provider or the HSM vendor. HSMs can enhance the protection of a critical environment that is used to store and manage encryption keys for a financial institution or any other organization that deals with sensitive data. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/hardware-security-3/


A security operations center wants to implement a solution that can execute files to test for malicious activity. The solution should provide a report of the files' activity against known threats.
Which of the following should the security operations center implement?

  • A. theHarvester
  • B. Nessus
  • C. Cuckoo
  • D. Sn1per

Answer: C

Cuckoo is a sandbox that is specifically written to run programs inside and identify any malware. A sandbox is a virtualized environment that isolates the program from the rest of the system and monitors its behavior. Cuckoo can analyze files of various types, such as executables, documents, URLs, and more. Cuckoo can provide a report of the files’ activity against known threats, such as network traffic, file operations, registry changes, API calls, and so on.
A security operations center can implement Cuckoo to execute files to test for malicious activity and generate a report of the analysis. Cuckoo can help the security operations center to detect and prevent malware infections, investigate incidents, and perform threat intelligence.


Which of the following social engineering attacks best describes an email that is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others?

  • A. Hoaxing
  • B. Pharming
  • C. Watering-hole
  • D. Phishing

Answer: A

Hoaxing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending false or misleading information via email or other means to trick recipients into believing something that is not true. Hoaxing emails often contain a request or an incentive for the recipients to forward the email to others, such as a warning of a virus, a promise of a reward, or a petition for a cause. The goal of hoaxing is to spread misinformation, cause panic, waste resources, or damage reputations.
A hoaxing email is primarily intended to mislead recipients into forwarding the email to others, which can increase the reach and impact of the hoax.


After multiple on-premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased The analysts are spending a long time trying to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats. Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?

  • A. CASB
  • B. VPC
  • C. SWG
  • D. CMS

Answer: D

CMS (Cloud Management System) is a software or platform that allows an organization to manage and monitor multiple cloud services and resources from a single interface or console. It can optimize the incident response time by providing a centralized view and control of the cloud infrastructure and applications, and enabling faster detection, analysis, and remediation of security incidents across different cloud environments.


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