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Exam Code: SY0-701 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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As part of annual audit requirements, the security team performed a review of exceptions to the company policy that allows specific users the ability to use USB storage devices on their laptops The review yielded the following results.
• The exception process and policy have been correctly followed by the majority of users
• A small number of users did not create tickets for the requests but were granted access
• All access had been approved by supervisors.
• Valid requests for the access sporadically occurred across multiple departments.
• Access, in most cases, had not been removed when it was no longer needed
Which of the following should the company do to ensure that appropriate access is not disrupted but unneeded access is removed in a reasonable time frame?

  • A. Create an automated, monthly attestation process that removes access if an employee's supervisor denies the approval
  • B. Remove access for all employees and only allow new access to be granted if the employee's supervisor approves the request
  • C. Perform a quarterly audit of all user accounts that have been granted access and verify the exceptions with the management team
  • D. Implement a ticketing system that tracks each request and generates reports listing which employees actively use USB storage devices

Answer: A

According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 documents, the correct answer option is A. Create an automated, monthly attestation process that removes access if an employee’s supervisor denies the approval12.
This option ensures that appropriate access is not disrupted but unneeded access is removed in a reasonable time frame by requiring supervisors to approve or deny the exceptions on a regular basis. It also reduces the manual workload of the security team and improves the compliance with the company policy.


Which of the following can be used to calculate the total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset?

  • A. EF x asset value
  • B. ALE / SLE
  • C. MTBF x impact
  • D. SLE x ARO

Answer: D

The total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset can be calculated using the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). SLE is the monetary loss expected from a single event, while ARO is the estimated frequency of that event occurring in a year. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-501, 7th Edition, by Emmett Dulaney and Chuck Easttom, Chapter 9: Risk Management, page 414.


A security analyst reviews a company’s authentication logs and notices multiple authentication failures. The authentication failures are from different usernames that share the same source IP address. Which of the password attacks is MOST likely happening?

  • A. Dictionary
  • B. Rainbow table
  • C. Spraying
  • D. Brute-force

Answer: C

Password spraying is an attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords against a large number of usernames. The goal of password spraying is to avoid detection by avoiding too many failed login attempts for any one user account. The fact that different usernames are being attacked from the same IP address is a strong indication that a password spraying attack is underway.


A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?

  • A. A An incident response plan
  • B. A communications plan
  • C. A business continuity plan
  • D. A disaster recovery plan

Answer: B

The organization should use a communications plan to inform the affected parties. A communications plan is a document that outlines how an organization will communicate with internal and external stakeholders during a crisis or incident. It should include details such as who will be responsible for communicating with different stakeholders, what channels will be used to communicate, and what messages will be communicated.
An incident response plan is a document that outlines the steps an organization will take to respond to a security incident or data breach. A business continuity plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover its IT infrastructure and data after a disaster.


An organization recently acquired an ISO 27001 certification. Which of the following would MOST likely be considered a benefit of this certification?

  • A. It allows for the sharing of digital forensics data across organizations
  • B. It provides insurance in case of a data breach
  • C. It provides complimentary training and certification resources to IT security staff.
  • D. It certifies the organization can work with foreign entities that require a security clearance
  • E. It assures customers that the organization meets security standards

Answer: E

ISO 27001 is an international standard that outlines the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing and protecting sensitive information using risk management processes. Acquiring an ISO 27001 certification assures customers that the organization meets security standards and follows best practices for information security management. It helps to build customer trust and confidence in the organization's ability to protect their sensitive information. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware, p. 7


Which of the following conditions impacts data sovereignty?

  • A. Rights management
  • B. Criminal investigations
  • C. Healthcare data
  • D. International operations

Answer: D

Data sovereignty refers to the legal concept that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the country in which it is located. International operations can impact data sovereignty as companies operating in multiple countries may need to comply with different laws and regulations. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5


When planning to build a virtual environment, an administrator need to achieve the following,
•Establish polices in Limit who can create new VMs
•Allocate resources according to actual utilization‘
•Require justication for requests outside of the standard requirements.
•Create standardized categories based on size and resource requirements Which of the following is the administrator MOST likely trying to do?

  • A. Implement IaaS replication
  • B. Product against VM escape
  • C. Deploy a PaaS
  • D. Avoid VM sprawl

Answer: D

The administrator is most likely trying to avoid VM sprawl, which occurs when too many VMs are created and managed poorly, leading to resource waste and increased security risks. The listed actions can help establish policies, resource allocation, and categorization to prevent unnecessary VM creation and ensure proper management. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 3.6 Given a scenario, implement the appropriate virtualization components.


A company wants to enable BYOD for checking email and reviewing documents. Many of the documents contain sensitive organizational information. Which of the following should be deployed first before allowing the use of personal devices to access company data?

  • A. MDM
  • B. RFID
  • C. DLR
  • D. SIEM

Answer: A

MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, which is a solution that can be used to manage and secure personal devices that access company data. MDM can enforce policies and rules, such as password protection, encryption, remote wipe, device lock, application control, and more. MDM can help a company enable BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) while protecting sensitive organizational information.


A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?

  • A. Default system configuration
  • B. Unsecure protocols
  • C. Lack of vendor support
  • D. Weak encryption

Answer: C

Using legacy software to support a critical service poses a risk due to lack of vendor support. Legacy software is often outdated and unsupported, which means that security patches and upgrades are no longer available. This can leave the system vulnerable to exploitation by attackers who may exploit known vulnerabilities in the software to gain unauthorized access to the system.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 1: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities


The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided to reorganize security staff to concentrate on incident response and to outsource outbound Internet URL categorization and filtering to an outside company. Additionally, the CISO would like this solution to provide the same protections even when a company laptop or mobile device is away from a home office. Which of the following should the CISO choose?

  • A. CASB
  • B. Next-generation SWG
  • C. NGFW
  • D. Web-application firewall

Answer: B

The solution that the CISO should choose is Next-generation Secure Web Gateway (SWG), which provides URL filtering and categorization to prevent users from accessing malicious sites, even when they are away from the office. NGFWs are typically cloud-based and offer multiple security layers, including malware detection, intrusion prevention, and data loss prevention. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibitCompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4


A security administrator is managing administrative access to sensitive systems with the following requirements:
• Common login accounts must not be used for administrative duties.
• Administrative accounts must be temporal in nature.
• Each administrative account must be assigned to one specific user.
• Accounts must have complex passwords.
" Audit trails and logging must be enabled on all systems.
Which of the following solutions should the administrator deploy to meet these requirements? (Give explanation and References from CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources)

  • A. ABAC
  • B. SAML
  • C. PAM
  • D. CASB

Answer: C

PAM is a solution that enables organizations to securely manage users' accounts and access to sensitive systems. It allows administrators to create unique and complex passwords for each user, as well as assign each account to a single user for administrative duties. PAM also provides audit trails and logging capabilities, allowing administrators to monitor user activity and ensure that all systems are secure. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Course Book, “PAM is the most comprehensive way to control and monitor privileged accounts”.


A security team suspects that the cause of recent power consumption overloads is the unauthorized use of empty power outlets in the network rack. Which of the following options will mitigate this issue without compromising the number of outlets available?

  • A. Adding a new UPS dedicated to the rack
  • B. Installing a managed PDU
  • C. Using only a dual power supplies unit
  • D. Increasing power generator capacity

Answer: B

Installing a managed PDU is the most appropriate option to mitigate the issue without compromising the number of outlets available. A managed Power Distribution Unit (PDU) helps monitor, manage, and control power consumption at the rack level. By installing a managed PDU, the security team will have greater visibility into power usage in the network rack, and they can identify and eliminate unauthorized devices that consume excessive power from empty outlets.


Which of the following would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed?

  • A. A full inventory of all hardware and software
  • B. Documentation of system classifications
  • C. A list of system owners and their departments
  • D. Third-party risk assessment documentation

Answer: A

A full inventory of all hardware and software would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, as it would allow the analyst to identify which systems and applications are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts accordingly. A full inventory would also help the analyst to determine the impact and likelihood of a successful exploit, as well as the potential loss of confidentiality, integrity and availability of the data and services. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/
SY0-701 dumps exhibithttps://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/blog/complete-guide-to-risk-management


A company recently experienced an attack during which 5 main website was directed to the atack-er’s web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers. Which of the following should the company Implement to prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future?

  • A. IPSec
  • B. SSL/TLS
  • D. S/MIME

Answer: C

The attack described in the question is known as a DNS hijacking attack. In this type of attack, an attacker modifies the DNS records of a domain name to redirect traffic to their own server. This allows them to intercept traffic and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.
To prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future, the company should implement C. DNSSEC.
DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is a security protocol that adds digital signatures to DNS records. This ensures that DNS records are not modified during transit and prevents DNS hijacking attacks.


During a security assessment, a security finds a file with overly permissive permissions. Which of the following tools will allow the analyst to reduce the permission for the existing users and groups and remove the set-user-ID from the file?

  • A. 1s
  • B. chflags
  • C. chmod
  • D. lsof
  • E. setuid

Answer: C

The chmod command is used to change the permissions of a file or directory. The analyst can use chmod to reduce the permissions for existing users and groups and remove the set-user-ID bit from the file. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6


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