Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 May HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q81. Which of the following data types encompassed in a patient's EHR would include body weight and temperature readings?
Explanation: Numeric data is a type of data that may be found in a patient's electronic health record. Examples of numerical data would be blood pressure readings, body weight and temperature readings.
Q82. A physician maintains a series of progress notes on a patient during the patient's stay at the hospital. These notes are entered into an electronic medical record at a workstation. What does the physician need to maintain during this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The physician needs to maintain the integrity of the record. She cannot erase any information, only add changes or corrections and she needs to electronically sign at appropriate points in the record.
B. The physician needs to maintain the confidentiality of the record. They have to make sure that the workstation is logged out of when not in use, so that no unauthorized individuals can have access to patient data.
C. The physician needs to maintain the security of the record. They have to check that no one else has viewed or altered the record from outside sources.
D. The physician needs to maintain the accessibility of the record. They have to provide access to the patient or their designated representatives.
Explanation: The physician has a responsibility to check that all of the progress notes, physician orders, history and other information about the patient that they are a part of is accurately and completely entered and that they electronically sign to acknowledge that they have checked this. They also have a responsibility to keep PHI confidential and make sure that computer systems are not left on where unauthorized individuals could have access to patient data. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the physician, but the responsibility of healthcare IT and healthcare information management to see that access control for the patient recorA, D log of access is maintain and to report and fix any security breaches. Answer: D is incorrect. Release of information and access to the patient record is the responsibility of the medical records or release of information office within a healthcare facility, not the physician.
Q83. Which of the following tools are used for an indoor site survey? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Access point
B. Topography map
C. Spectrum analyzer
Explanation: Following are the tools that are used for an indoor site survey: Antenna. A wide variety of both omni-directional and indoor semi-directional antennas are used in every indoor site survey. Accesspoint. An access point is a wireless LAN device. It provides a means for wireless clients to send data to one another and to a wired network. AP connects to both wireless LAN and wired Ethernet LAN. Spectrum analyzer. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of some electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum. The analog and digital spectrum analyzers are as follows: 1.An analog spectrum analyzer uses either a variable band-pass filter whose mid-frequency is automatically tuned (shifted, swept) through the range of frequencies of which the spectrum is to be measured. 2.A digital spectrum analyzer computes the discrete Fourier transform (DFT), a mathematical process that transforms a waveform into the components of its frequency spectrum. Answer: B is incorrect. A topography map is a tool used for an outdoor site survey. It is a detaileA, Dccurate graphic representation of cultural and natural features on the ground. These maps are based on topographical surveys performed at large scales.
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Q84. You are a healthcare IT technician. Your manager provides you a storage media having PHI data and wants you to perform low level format on it. Which form of secure disposal of PHI are you performing?
Explanation: Degaussing is a process in which the magnetic field of a disk or drive is removed. When degaussing occurs on a magnetic media, it removes an entire media element quickly and effectively. A device has been designed for this process, called the degausser. Degaussing makes the disk or drive inoperable by performing low-level formatting. It is only done at the factory during manufacturing. To make the drive or disk functional, return it to the manufacturer for servicing. A degaussed disk can generally be reformatted and reused with standard consumer hardware. Answer: D is incorrect. Shredding can be defined as the program that is used for the purpose of rewriting the files several times with the random series of binary data. It is capable of removing the files from the system, permanently. In the process of shredding, the content of the file can be overwritten. The process of recovering such a shredded file is usually theoretical. Answer: A is incorrect. Sanitization refers to the general process of removing data from storage media, such that there is reasonable assurance that the data may not be easily retrieved and reconstructed. Answer: C is incorrect. Piercing of media is not a secure way of disposal of PHI data.
Q85. Which of the following is a temporary dip in the voltage on the supply line that usually lasts only a fraction of a second?
A. Power Spike
C. Power Sag
D. Power Surge
Explanation: A power sag is a temporary dip in the voltage on the supply line that usually lasts only a fraction of a second. It is the opposite of power surge and it indicates a sudden demand for power on the power grid that creates a wave of low voltage on the electrical system. The PC's power supply has some power in reserve to pull up short power sags but a series of power sags in a short time can effect the power supply's ability to provide the correct voltage to internal components of a PC, and can weaken, damage, or destroy them. Answer: A is incorrect. A power spike is a sudden isolated extremely high over voltage event on an electrical line. The primary cause of the power spike is lightning strikes. Lightning carries millions of volts, and if a home or office takes a direct hit, a PC along with other devices are likely to be heavily damaged. Direct striking is a rare event but a strike within a mile can create a sudden spike in the electrical current near the strike. Answer: D is incorrect. Power surge is a sharp increase in the voltage or an over voltage event. It is a short and temporary increase in voltage on the power grid and it is like a rough wave. Different types of electrical disturbance such as lightning storm, distant lightning strikes, or problems on the electrical power supply grid can cause the voltage to suddenly increase. Answer: B is incorrect. EMI stands for electromagnetic interference, which is also known as radio frequency interference or RFI. It is a disturbance that affects an electrical circuit due to either electromagnetic conduction or electromagnetic radiation emitted from an external source.
Q86. You have a family member with terminal cancer who suddenly develops pneumonia. Which of the following types of healthcare facilities is best equipped to handle this scenario?
A. Nonacute Care Facililty
B. Subacute Care Facility
C. Acute Care Facility
D. Ambulatory Care Facility
Explanation: A subacute care facility is a type of facility is required to treat individuals who have an acute illness or injury on top of a chronic illness. These facilities are used to treat the acute disease process that cannot be treated by the long term care facility. Answer: D is incorrect. Ambulatory care facility is incorrect as this facility offers a variety of outpatient services which is directly overseen by a hospital, but patients to do not require a stay in the hospital.
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Q87. You need a patient's medical information for a research project. Which type of medical information can you obtain without consent from the patient?
A. Paper Health Information
B. De-Identified Health Information
C. Archived Health Information
D. Electronic Health Information
Explanation: The HIPAA act requires no restrictions on de-identified health information. De-identified health information refers to health records, x-rays, lab results or any part of the patients permanent health record in which pertinent information has been removed so the patient cannot be identified. Pertinent identifiers include patient's name, social security number, date of birth or address. De-identified health information is usually used for research and training purposes. Answer: C is incorrect. Archived Health Information is incorrect as any patient information stored on any media, compact disc, dvd, or video tape is protected by the HIPAA act. Answer: A is incorrect. Paper Health Information is incorrect as any patient information written on paper is covered by the HIPAA act. Paper health information includes the patient's chart, prescriptions and consent forms. Answer: D is incorrect. Electronic Health Information is incorrect as all patient records stored in any hospital computer is regulated by the HIPPA Act.
Q88. You are an information technologist at a long term care facility that cares form chronically ill patients. One of your job duties is to ensure the history and physicals for these patients are dictated and transcribed in the appropriate time frame. You are required by The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations to have the history and physicals to be dictated and transcribed within which of the following time frames?
A. 7 days
B. 30 days
C. 14 days
D. 24 hours
Explanation: The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Healthcare organizations requires a history and physical be dictated and transcribed within 30 days for chronic care patients. Answer: D is incorrect. The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Healthcare organizations requires a history and physical be dictated and transcribed within 30 days for chronic care patients. Answer: A is incorrect. The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Healthcare organizations requires a history and physical be dictated and transcribed within 30 days for chronic care patients. Answer: C is incorrect. The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Healthcare organizations requires a history and physical be dictated and transcribed within 30 days for chronic care patients.
Q89. Which of the following categories of information technology in the health care setting involve ordering medical procedures?
A. Clinical IT
B. Administrative IT
C. Financial IT
D. Infrastructure IT
Explanation: Clinical IT applications are used for prescription of drugs and ordering of laboratory tests and medical procedures. Answer: B is incorrect. Administrative IT is incorrect as these applications are used to make staff scheduling, patient registration and payroll procedures more efficient. Answer: C is incorrect. Financial IT is incorrect as these applications are used to improve the efficiency of billing and accounting practices. Answer: D is incorrect. Infrastructure IT is incorrect as these applications support the infrastructure of the health care facility. These applications include voice recognition for medical records and medical transcription as well as bar coding applications for medical devices and drugs.
Q90. Which of the following is defined as the technical and procedural methods to control and manage confidential information?
D. Data Security
Explanation: Data security is defined as technical and procedural methods to control and manage confidential information. Answer: B is incorrect. Privacy is incorrect as this is defined as the individual's right to control disclosure of his or her personal information. Answer: C is incorrect. Confidentiality is incorrect as this is defined as the legal and ethical obligation of health care professionals to meet the expectation of privacy from patients. Answer: D is incorrect. Conformity is defined as an individual adapting their behaviors, thoughts and attitudes to match what are perceived as normal by society. This answer choice is simply meant as a distractor.
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