Leading Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals 200-201 Free Practice Exam

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NEW QUESTION 1
An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.
Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

  • A. signatures
  • B. host IP addresses
  • C. file size
  • D. dropped files
  • E. domain names

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 2
An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.
Which testing method did the intruder use?

  • A. social engineering
  • B. eavesdropping
  • C. piggybacking
  • D. tailgating

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack'?

  • A. post-incident activity
  • B. detection and analysis
  • C. containment eradication and recovery
  • D. preparation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Which principle is being followed when an analyst gathers information relevant to a security incident to determine the appropriate course of action?

  • A. decision making
  • B. rapid response
  • C. data mining
  • D. due diligence

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?

  • A. denial of service
  • B. ARP cache poisoning
  • C. DHCP snooping
  • D. command and control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-201 dumps exhibit
What should be interpreted from this packet capture?

  • A. IP address 179.179.69/50272/192.168.122.100/80/6 is sending a packet from port 80 of IP address 192.168.122.100 that is going to port 50272 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using IP protocol 6.
  • B. IP address 192.168.122.100/50272/81.179.179.69/80/6 is sending a packet from port 50272 of IP address 192.168.122.100 that is going to port 80 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using IP protocol 6.
  • C. IP address 192.168.122.100/50272/81.179.179.69/80/6 is sending a packet from port 80 of IP address 192.168.122.100 that is going to port 50272 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using IP protocol 6.7E503B693763E0113BE0CD2E4A16C9C4
  • D. IP address 179.179.69/50272/192.168.122.100/80/6 is sending a packet from port 50272 of IP address 192.168.122.100 that is going to port 80 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using IP protocol 6.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?

  • A. The system detected an XSS attack
  • B. Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network
  • C. Another device is gaining root access to the system
  • D. A privileged user successfully logged into the system

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

  • A. data availability
  • B. data normalization
  • C. data signature
  • D. data protection

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?

  • A. by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server
  • B. by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server
  • C. by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server
  • D. by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
What is the difference between a threat and a risk?

  • A. Threat represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system
  • B. Risk represents the known and identified loss or danger in the system
  • C. Risk represents the nonintentional interaction with uncertainty in the system
  • D. Threat represents a state of being exposed to an attack or a compromise either physically or logically

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11
What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

  • A. An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vectoridentifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.
  • B. An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited; and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.
  • C. An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.
  • D. An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

  • A. Untampered images are used in the security investigation process
  • B. Tampered images are used in the security investigation process
  • C. The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match
  • D. Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process
  • E. The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 13
How does certificate authority impact a security system?

  • A. It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate
  • B. It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate
  • C. It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate
  • D. It validates client identity when communicating with the server

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

  • A. integrity
  • B. confidentiality
  • C. availability
  • D. scope

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

  • A. examination
  • B. investigation
  • C. collection
  • D. reporting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16
An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.
What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

  • A. queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed
  • B. deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion
  • C. is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory
  • D. has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 17
What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

  • A. physical location of an object in memory
  • B. set of pages that reside in the physical memory
  • C. system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system
  • D. set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18
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