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2016 Jul hit-001 sample questions:
Q31. Which of the following payment terms is based on the cost of the provider to perform services?
A. Fee for Services
B. Customary Charges
D. Sliding Scale Fee
Explanation: The fee for services term of payment is dependent on the cost of the provider to provide services such as lab tests, x-rays etc. Hospitals or other facilities receiving fee for service are paid for each individual service that is provided. Answer: B is incorrect. Customary charges is incorrect as this type of payment term is based on what is normally charged or what is reasonable for the service provided. Answer: D is incorrect. Sliding Scale fee is incorrect as this type of payment term is common in low income areas and is based on the patient's ability to pay. Answer: C is incorrect. Capitation is incorrect as this payment term is a pre-paid amount based on a per-person or per-capita amount.
Q32. Which of the following is the most secure among the following encryption algorithms?
Explanation: AES encryption is the most secure among DES, 3DES, and RC4 encryptions. The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is an encryption standard that comprises three block ciphers, AES-128, AES-192, and AES-256, adopted from a larger collection originally published as Rijndael. Each AES cipher has a 128-bit block size, with key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits, respectively. The AES ciphers have been analyzed extensively and are now used worldwide, as was the case with its predecessor, the Data Encryption Standard (DES). AES is one of the most popular algorithms used in symmetric key cryptography. It is available in many different encryption packages. AES is the first publicly accessible and open cipher approved by the NSA for top secret information. Answer: A, B, D are incorrect. DES, 3DES, and RC4 encryptions are weaker than the AES encryption.
Q33. Which access point (AP) configuration is used to stop AP sending Beacon frames and to enhance security of a Wireless LAN (WLAN)?
A. Active scanning
B. SSID cloaking
C. Rogue AP
D. Mobility anchor
Explanation: SSID cloaking is access point (AP) configuration to stop AP sending Beacon frames. This is used to enhance security of a Wireless LAN (WLAN). It makes difficult for attackers to find the AP. It is also used by enterprises to prevent curious people from trying to access the WLAN. Answer: C is incorrect. A Rogue access point (AP) is set up by the attackers in an Enterprise's network. The attacker captures packets in the existing wireless LAN (WLAN) and finds the SSID and security keys (by cracking). Then the attacker sets up his own AP using the same SSID and security keys. The network clients unknowingly use this AP and the attacker captures their usernames and passwords. This can help the attacker to intrude the security and have access to the Enterprise data. Answer: D is incorrect. Mobility anchor is a feature in which all the client traffic that belongs to a wireless LAN (especially the guest wireless LAN) is tunneled to a pre-defined wireless LAN controller. In other words, mobility anchor is a set of controllers that are configured as an anchor for a specific wireless LAN. It is also called guest tunneling or auto-anchor mobility. This feature can be used to restrict a WLAN to a single subnet, regardless of the client's entry point into the network. In this way, users can access a public or guest WLAN throughout an enterprise but still be restricted to a specific subnet. Guest WLAN can also be used to provide geographic load balancing because WLANs can represent a particular section of a building. Answer: A is incorrect. In active scanning, if the wireless host wants to connect to the access point, it sends a management frame known as probe request frame to the access point. The probe request frame either contains the SSID of the specific access point that the wireless host is looking for or can be any SSID. If the wireless host receives probe responses from multiple access points, it chooses the best access point, i.e., the access point that has the best signal strength. The wireless host can now associate itself with the access point.
Q34. You have been asked to analyze a patient's medical record And design a numerical value to all services this patient has received. Which of the following tasks have you been asked to perform?
Explanation: Coding is the act of applying the proper codes for medical services rendered in order to properly bill the patient or patient's insurance carrier. Answer: A is incorrect. Archiving is incorrect as this act is ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location. Answer: D is incorrect. Thinning is incorrect as this is to make a patients chart easier to handle after it has become to large and cumbersome to handle. This act is normally necessary for a patient who has incurred an extended stay in the hospital. The medical records that have been thinned are not destroyed but sent to the central medical records area where they should still be readily accessible. Answer: C is incorrect. Scanning is incorrect as this is the act of converting paper medical records into computerized form.
Q35. Healthcare facilities need to have strict policies about mobile devices and remote access to the organization's network when access to protected health information is involved. You are asked by a healthcare provider to help her set up a way to access her account while she is at a conference in Denver. What are some policies that your organization might have to this kind of arrangement? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. No remote access is allowed for any reason due to the possibility of protected health information becoming vulnerable.
B. It is necessary to install a VPM or virtual private network on the provider's laptop, one that is approved by the IT staff and has been demonstrated to be secure.
C. As long as the desktop is locked for access with a password, network access to the providers personal computer shouldn't be a problem.
D. No PHI may be stored on a home or personal computer for any reason, and a home or personal computer should never be considered a secure location.
Explanation: Option A, option B and option D may sound contradictory, but any of these could be part of the remote access policy of the healthcare facility a healthcare IT technician could work for. Remote access and mobile devices may be important for the smooth functioning of the organization, but security of PHI is very important, and different IT departments will maintain different policies regarding access depending upon the needs of the organization and the employees. It may be that if the management does not see a benefit in remote access and the risk is too great, that no remote access is allowed into the network. Some organizations may allow access through a secure Virtual Private Network, and may allow no PHI to be transferred or stored on a home or personal computer or device. Answer: C is incorrect. A home or personal computer cannot be considered a secure device, even with password protection. If the laptop or computer is stolen, it is all too easy for passwords to be decrypted and information stored on the device to be access and PHI confidentiality to be breeched.
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Q36. You are asked to convert all paper medical records to a digital format. Which of the following tasks are you being asked to perform?
A. Document Imaging
B. Device Capture
C. Document Archiving
D. Clinical Imaging
Explanation: Document imaging involves prepping, scanning, indexing and performing quality control on paper documents that are entered into a computerized system. Answer: B is incorrect. Device capture is the act of transmitting medical information directly from a medical device such as electrocardiogram. Answer: C is incorrect. Document archiving is the act of ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location. Answer: D is incorrect. Clinical imaging refers to medical information that is obtained by the use of photographs or other medical imaging devices that need to be a part of the patient's permanent medical record.
Q37. Covered entities and business associates may soon be required to make a log of all disclosures of protected health information, both for treatment, payment and operations as well as any other purposes. Previously, there was an exception for TPO purposes. What part of healthcare regulation first required logging methodology of electronic protected health information disclosures?
A. HIPAA Privacy Rule
B. HIPAA Security Rule
Explanation: The HIPAA Security Rule contains a mandate for "technical safeguards" which includes audit controls, where a covered entity or business associate needs to implement hardware, software or procedural mechanisms that record and examine any activity in the use and disclosure of electronic protected health information. However, there used to be an exception to the Security Rule for use and disclosure of PHI involved in treatment, payment and operations purposes. That exception is currently being evaluated and may soon be eliminated, requiring many healthcare facilities to reevaluate their current logging capability for PHI use and disclosure accounting. Answer: A is incorrect. The HIPAA Privacy Rule in 45 C.F.R. 164.528 does require an accounting of disclosures to be kept for all PHI, but did not specify that the method had to be a computer logging tool. The security rule in HIPAA Security Rule, 164.312 is more precise in requiring the use of a logging system as a technical safeguard to prevent unauthorized disclosure. Answer: D is incorrect. The HITECH law does add additional regulation to disclosure accounting but they are not yet in effect (this will eliminate the TPO exception). HITECH currently does increase penalties for noncompliance. Answer: C is incorrect. PSQIA is the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 and does not include regulations of accounting of disclosures.
Q38. Which of the following actions refer to the transmission of medical information directly from a medical device?
A. Device Capture
B. Clinical Imaging
C. Document Imaging
D. Document Archiving
Explanation: Device capture is the act of transmitting medical information directly from a medical device such as electrocardiogram. All medical information transmitted via device capture must be review and validated by a physician. Answer: C is incorrect. Document imaging is incorrect as this action involves involves prepping, scanning, indexing and performing quality control on paper documents that are entered into a computerized system. Answer: B is incorrect. Clinical imaging refers to medical information that is obtained by the use of photographs or other medical imaging devices that need to be a part of the patient's permanent medical record. Answer: D is incorrect. Document archiving is the act of ensuring the documents of a patient's medical record are sufficiently stored for the appropriate length of time in a private location.
Q39. Which of the following database models supports the many-many model by allowing each child to have more than one parent?
A. Object Oriented Model
B. Network Model
C. Enterprise Model
D. Hierarchal Model
Explanation: The network model is designed to allow the child to have more than one parent. This model is often referred to as the many to many model. Answer: D is incorrect. Hierarchal model is incorrect as this database model uses the format of a typical parent-child arrangement, whereas, one piece of information can have many subordinated pieces. Answer: A is incorrect. Object oriented model is incorrect as this model is essentially a collection of objects, related by encapsulation (an object such as a patient has certain characteristics) or inheritance (an object such as a resident inherits characteristics from a physician object). There is no primary key in this model. Answer: C is incorrect. Enterprise model is meant as a distractor, the enterprise database model does not exist.
Q40. There are millions of insurance billing claims being sent out to hundreds of difference insurance carriers everyday, and with many different formats for claim forms and the need for error checking, there's a need for a service to manage electronic claims in one accessible format for billing offices to contact if there is a problem. If you have a problem with a billing transaction program, you will likely contact one of these services during your employment. What is the name of this kind of entity?
A. Medical Billing Clearinghouse
B. Insurance Server
C. Claims manager
D. Electronic traffic controller
Explanation: A healthcare billing clearinghouse receives from a healthcare provider's billing office an electronic claim and then scrubs it for potential errors, then the clearinghouse securely transmits the claim to the correct payer (insurer, government program, etc). Answer: D is incorrect. Although a clearinghouse may seem like an information "air traffic controller" this is not the proper name for the company. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not the correct term. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not what a claims manager does. A claims manager is a position within an insurance company.
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